Uttarakhand
P.C.S. Civil Judge Pre Exam., 2008
Part-I
General
Knowledge
1. How
many judges of Supreme Court of India by now have been removed from their
office before expiry of their normal term through impeachment?
(A) one (B)
two
(C) three (D)
none
Ans. (d)
2. In
which one of the lists of Constitution of India the subject of Preventive
detention lies?
A.
Union list
B.
State list
C.
Concurrent list
D.
None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. World Environmental Day is celebrated
on
(A) 5th
June (B)
10th June
(C) 11th
June, (D)
5th September
Ans. (a)
4. Gandhi International Peace Award 2006
was given to
A.
Kiran Desai
B.
Ruth Manorama
C.
Shabana Azmi
D.
Suketu Mehta
Ans. (c)
5. How
many members are nomintated in Rajya Sabha under Indian Indian Constitution?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
6
D.
12
Ans. (d)
6. Who is the Head of the state under the
Constitution of India?
A.
Prime Minister
B.
President of India
C.
Parliament of India
D.
All the above
Ans. (b)
7. A law for preventive detention may be
enacted
A.
exclusively by Parliament
B.
exclusively by state legislature
C.
by both Parliament as well as by state
legislature
D.
only by means of ordinance promulgated
by the President
Ans. (c)
8. Who appoints the officers and employees
of the High Court?
A.
Chief justice of High Court
B.
Governor of the concerned state
C.
Public Service Commission
D.
Registrar of High Court
Ans. (a)
9. Which one of the following scholars
consider international law as true law?
A.
Grotius
B.
Hobbes
C.
Holland
D.
Austin
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following is not a principal
organ of United Nations Organisation?
A.
Tursteeship Council
B.
Economic and social council
C.
International Court of justice
D.
Human Rights Commission
Ans. (d)
11. Which
one of the following can enforce the judgement of International Court of
Justice?
A.
General Assembly on the recommendations
of Security Council
B.
Secretary General
C.
Security Council on the request of
International Court of Justice
D.
None of the above
Ans. (d)
12. The International Criminal Court is
located at
A.
Geneva
B.
Hague
C.
London
D.
Washington
Ans. (b)
13. In
which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that strike by lawyers
is illegal and unethical?
A.
Rosalyn Higgins
B.
Rosa E. Otunbayeva
C.
Gestrued Mongella
D.
Sadako Ogata
Ans. (a)
14. In
which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that strike by lawyers
is illegal and unethical?
A.
M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
B.
Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India
C.
Dr. B.L. Wadehra Vs. NCT Delhi
D.
Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India
Ans. (c)
15. In
which of the following cases the Supreme Court directed the Government to
implement the law against female foeticide?
A.
Madhu Kishwar Vs . State of Bihar
B.
CEHAT Vs. Union of India
C.
Balveer Kaur Vs. Dhirdas
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
16. In
which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has observed sexual
harassment as a violation of human rights?
A.
Vishakha Vs. State of Rajasthan
B.
Kapila Hingurani Vs. State of Bihar
C.
Tukaram Vs. State of Maharashtra
D.
Ahmed Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begam
Ans. (a)
17. The case of Roman Catholic Priest, John
Vallanmatton Vs. Union of India relates to
A.
enactment of uniform civil code
B.
enactment of uniform Hindu code
C.
enactment of uniform law for both Hindus
and Christians
D.
none of the above
Ans. (a)
18. The
Chief Justice of India may appoint an adhoc judge in the Supreme Court from
amongst.
A.
retired judges of Supreme Court
B.
serving judges of the High Court
C.
persons qualified to be appointed as
judge of the Supreme Court
D.
retired judge of a High Court
Ans. (b)
19. Copy right subsists after the death of an
author for
A.
50 years
B.
60 years
C.
70 years
D.
75 years
Ans. (b)
20. In
which one of the following states recently the first regular quasi judicial
mobile court has been inaugurated?
A.
Uttrakhand
B.
Haryana
C.
Punjab
D.
Maharashtra
Ans. (b)
21. By
which of the following Constitutional Amendments Art 21-A on right to education
has been added in the Constitution?
A.
85th Amendment
B.
86th Amendment
C.
87th Amendment
D.
88th Amendment
Ans. (b)
22. Who among the following was the chairman
of sixth pay commission?
A.
Justice Rathnaval Pandian
B.
Justice A.S. Anand
C.
Justice Sri Krishna
D.
Justice A.K. Majumdar
Ans. (c)
23. In
which of the following sections the term Information has been defined in the
Right to information Act, 2005?
A.
Se 2 (g)
B.
Sec 2 (a) I
C.
Sec 2 (h) a
D.
Sec 2 f
Ans. (d)
24. Which one of the following cases relate
to anti-strike verdict?
A.
T.K. Rangrajan Vs. Govt. of Tamil Nadu
AIR 2003 SC
B.
Shyam Narayan Vs. Union of India AIR
2003 M.P.
C.
High Court of Gujarat Vs. Gujarat Kisan
Mazdoor (2003) 4 SCC
D.
M.K. Usman Vs. C.S. Santhe AIR 2003
Kerala
Ans. (a)
25. In
the history of India, who among the following is famous for the policy of
market control?
A.
Balban
B.
Akbar
C.
Sher Shah
D.
Allauddin Khilji
Ans. (d)
26. How many schedules are there in the
Indian Constitution at present?
A.
Parimarjan Negi
B.
Jeev Milkha
C.
Pankaj Adwani
D.
Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Ans. ()No answer
27. How many schedules are there in the
Indian Constitution at present?
A.
9
B.
10
C.
11
D.
12
Ans. (d)
28. Which
one of the following is not listed as a source of International Law in the
statute of International Court of Justice?
A.
Treaties
B.
Custom
C.
Precedent
D.
None of the above
Ans. (d)
29. Members of International Court of Justice
are elected for a period of
A.
3 years
B.
5 years
C.
7 years
D.
9 years
Ans. (d)
30. Who amongst the following is not
appointed by the President?
A.
Attorney General
B.
Advocate General
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Chief Election Commissioner
Ans. (b)
31. In
which of the following cases the whole hearing was conducted through video
conferencing first time in India?
A.
Abdul Kareem Mulla 2006
B.
Abdul Kareem Telgi 2006
C.
Ottavio Quattrochhi 2006
D.
Telephone Tapping case 2006
Ans. (b)
32. In India Power to declare any area as
scheduled area belongs to
A. Parliament
B.
Assembly of the State
C.
President
D. Election
Commissioner
Ans. (c)
33. On which' of the following dates 'Law
Day' is celebrated?
(A) 8th
September (B) 28th October
(C) 26th November (D) 20th
December
Ans. (c)
34. Which
one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relates to
untouchability?
(A) Art. 17 (B) Art.
18
(C) Art. 23 (D) Art.
24
Ans. (a)
35. National Human Rights Commission in India
was established on
A.
26th January, 1993
B.
15th March, 1993
C.
15th June, 1993
D.
27th September, 1993
Ans. (d)
36. Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry
of
(A) 30 days (B) 60
days
(C) 90 days (D) six
months
Ans. (c)
37. International
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights was adopted by the General Assembly on:
A.
January 3, 1966
B.
October 13, 1966
C.
November 5,1966
D.
December 16, 1966
Ans. (d)
38. Phukan Commission is related to
A.
Reservations for minorities
B.
Tehelka defence scandal
C.
Anti-Sikh riots of 1984
D.
Reforms in civil Services
Ans. (b)
39. In
2005, the Supreme Court struck down the Illegal Migration Determination by
Tribunal Act of 1983 applicable to the state of
A.
Assam
B.
West Bengal
C.
Nagaland
D.
Manipur
Ans. (a)
40. Point out the correct answer.
“
Full faith and credit” clause of the Constitution does not apply to
A.
Public Records
B.
Judicial proceedings
C.
Acts of coprorations
D.
Public acts
Ans. (c)
41. The concept of Judicial Review in India
has been taken from the Constitution of
A.
Britain
B.
France
C.
U.S.A.
D.
Switzerland
Ans. (c)
42. A political party is recognised as
National or Regional by the
A.
State Government
B.
Central Government
C.
Chief State Election Commission
D.
Election Commissioner of India
Ans. (d)
43. Which one of the following is the correct
was codified in the
The
customary International law of treaties was codified in the
A.
Viena Convention, 1980
B.
Statute of International Court of
Justice
C.
Resolution of the U.N. General Assembly
D.
Viena declaration, 1993
Ans. (a)
44. VAT is related to
A.
Banking service
B.
Business Tax System
C.
Life Insurance
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
45. The name of first woman chief justice of
High Court is India is
A.
Leila Seth
B.
Leila Mukherjee
C.
Lalitabasu
D.
Sarojini Naidu
Ans. (a)
46. Which one of the following Is related to
SEBI?
A.
Banking
B.
Share Market
C.
Insurance
D.
Banking and Insurance
Ans. (b)
47. Which medium is used by ‘Reader’ to trace
aeroplanes?
A.
Micro wave
B.
Electric wave
C.
Ultrasonic wave
D.
Sound wave
Ans. (a)
48. Which
one of the following properties is not liable to be attached and sold in
execution of decree?
A.
Government Securities
B.
Promisory notes
C.
Books and Accounts
D.
Bonds
Ans. (c)
49. The transfer of the company’s Government
to British Crown was done on
A.
1st October, 1857
B.
1st October, 1858
C.
1st October, 1859
D.
1st October, 1860
Ans. (b)
50. Which
one of the following High Courts have the jurisdiction over largest number of
states in India?
A.
Calcutta High Court
B.
Bombay High Court
C.
Guwahati High Court
D.
Madras High Court
Ans. (c)
Part-II
Law
Indian
Evidence Qs. 51 to 60
51. In Evidence Act the facts of which
judicial notice is to be taken are stated in
A.
Section 55
B.
Section 56
C.
Section 57
D.
Section 58
Ans. (c)
52. The presumption of continuance of life is
contained in
A.
Section 106 of the Evidence Act
B.
Section 107 of the Evidence Act
C.
Section 108 of the Evidence Act
D.
Section 109 of the Evidence Act
Ans. (b)
53. Point out the correct statement:
A. The
doctrine of estoppel is applied in civil and criminal matters.
B.
The doctrine of estoppel is applied in
criminal matters.
C.
The doctrine of estoppel is applied in
civil matters.
D. All
the above statements are incorrect.
Ans. (c)
54. Under section 122 of the Evidence Act,
1872 privilege is available to
A.
professionals
B.
magistrates
C.
wife and husband
D.
Judges
Ans. (c)
55. Under
Indian Evidence Act a copy compared with a copy of a letter made by a copying
machine is
A.
primary evidence
B.
oral evidence
C.
secondary evidence
D.
any of the above
Ans. (c)
56. Which
one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides exception to
the rule "hearsay evidence is not admissible":
(A) Section 29 (B) Section
30
(C) Section 31 (D) Section
32
Ans. (d)
57. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
A.
administrative tribunal’s proceedings
B.
arbitrator’s proceedings
C.
contempt’s proceedings
D.
none of the above
Ans. (d)
58. Under Indian Evidence Act the dying
declaration is not admissible if
A.
it relates to cause of action
B.
it relates to any transaction of death
C.
the person making the statement was not
competent in the opinion of the court
D.
none of the above
Ans. (c)
59. Under
which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the doctrine of
‘Res gestae’ has been dealt with
A.
Section 5
B.
Section 6
C.
Section 7
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
60. Under
which one of the following sections of the Evidence Act the previous conviction
of a person is relevant
A.
explanation I to Section 14
B.
explanation II to Section 14
C.
explanation III to Section 14
D.
explanation IV to Section 14
Ans. (b)
C.P.C.
Qs. 61 to 73
61. Provisions
relating to set off and counter claims under civil procedure code, 1973 are contained
in
(A) Order VI (B) Order
VII
(C) Order VIII (D) Order
IX
Ans. (c)
62. All
orders and notices served on or given to any person under the provisions of
civil procedure code shall be in writing has been provided under
(A) Section 141
(B)
Section 142
(C) Section 143
(D)
Section 144
Ans. (b)
63. Which
one of the following sections of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the
essence of this code that "Objections as to local or pecuniary
jurisdiction shall be raised at the first opportunity
(A) Section 21 (B) Section
22
(C) Section 24 (D) Section
25
Ans. (a)
64. Under
which one of the following provisions of C.P.C. the principle of constructive
resjudicata has been explained:
A.
Section 11 explanation I
B.
Section 11 explanation III
C.
Section 11 explanation IV
D.
Section 11 explanation VII
Ans. (c)
65. Point out the correct Answer:
Under
Civil Procedure Code where any party dies after conclusion and before
pronouncement of judgement
A.
The suit shall be abated
B.
The suit shall not be abated
C.
The suit shall not be abated if cause of
action survives
D.
It will be deemed that judgement has
been pronounced after death of the party
Ans. (b)
66. Under
C.P.C. where a person who is a necessary party to a suit has not been joined as
a party, it is a case of
A.
misjoinder
B.
non-joinder
C.
both (A) & (B)
D.
none of the above
Ans. (b)
67. Under
C.P.C. when the service of summons to the defendant is not made to him due to
his absence within reasonable time, summons can be served to the
A.
servant of the defendant
B.
adult son of the defendant
C.
minor daughter of the defendant
D.
munim of the defendant
Ans. (b)
68. Under section 96 of the C.P.C. an appeal
can lie against the
A.
preliminary decree
B.
original decree
C.
secondary decree
D.
none of the above
Ans. (b)
69. Under which one of the following
"rejection of plaint" has been mentioned in C.P.C.
A.
Order VII Rule 11
B.
Order VI Rule 13
C.
Order VII Rule 12
D.
Order VIII Rule 4
Ans. (a)
70. Which one of the following provisions of
C.P.C. related to "Affidavits;'?
(A) Order 17 (B) Order
19
(C) Order 26 (D) Order
39
Ans. (b)
71. Under
which one of the following provisions of C.P.C, the collector may be appointed
as a 'Receiver'
A.
Order 40 Rule 1
B.
Order 40 Rule 2
C.
Order 40 Rule 3
D.
Order 40 Rule 5
Ans. (d)
72. Provisions of sec. 80 of the Civil
Procedure Code are
A.
mandatory
B.
directory
C.
discretionary
D.
none of the above
Ans. (a)
73. How
much time is required for serving a
notice under sec. 80 of the Civil Procedure Code?
A.
three months
B.
two months
C.
one month
D.
four month
Ans. (b)
Cr.
P.C. Qs. 74 to 85
74. Under
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 which one of the following courts can try a
murder case:
A.
Magistrate 1st class
B.
Chief Judicial Magistrate
C.
Sessions judge
D.
Any of the above court
Ans. (c)
75. Under
Cr. P.C. no court shall take congnizance of an offence punishable with fine
only, after expiry of period of
A.
two months
B.
three months
C.
four months
D.
six months
Ans. (d)
76. Under Cr. P.C. provisions relating to
prosecution of public servant is given under
A.
Section 196
B.
Section 197
C.
Section 198
D.
Section 200
Ans. (b)
77. What
is the time limit under se. 468 of the Cr. P.C. for taking cognizance in a case
of defamation?
A.
six months
B.
one year
C.
three years
D.
no limit
Ans. (c)
78. How
much punishment may be provided to an accused who is found guilty under a
summary trial under Cr. P.C.?
A.
not exceeding two years
B.
not exceeding one year
C.
not exceeding six months
D.
not exceeding three months
Ans. (d)
79. Under
which one of the following sections of Cr. P.C., police can arrest an accused
without warrant?
A.
Section 37
B.
Section 40
C.
Section 41
D.
Section 42
Ans. (c)
80. Under
Cr. P.C. there shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of 1st
class imposes only sentence of fine not exceeding
A.
one hundred rupees
B.
two hundred rupees
C.
three hundred rupees
D.
five hundred rupees
Ans. (a)
81. A
refusal to answer questions put to a witness under Sec. 161 of the Cr. P.C. is
an offence under
A.
Section 176 of I.P.C
B.
Section 179 of I.P.C
C.
Section 187 of I.P.C.
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
82. According
to the Cr. P.C. every information relating to the commission of a cognizable
offence shall be signed by:
A.
the person giving it
B.
the officer incharge of a police station
C.
the investigation officer
D.
the concerned magistrate
Ans. (a)
83. Who may record confessional statement
under Section 164 of the Cr. P.C.?
A.
Police officer
B.
Executive Magistrate
C.
Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction
only
D.
Any Judicial Magistrate
Ans. (d)
84. Under
which one of the following sections of Cr. P.C it is mandatory for the officer
to produce the person arrested before a Magistrate within 24 hours of the
arrest.
A.
Section 57
B.
Section 68
C.
Section 79
D.
Section 90
Ans. (a)
85. Under
Cr. P.C. an accused person can be remanded to police custody for not more than.
A.
7 days at one time
B.
15 days at one time
C.
20 days at one time
D.
30 day at one time
Ans. (b)
T.P.A.Qs.
86 to 110
86. Which
one of the following is not an actionable claim under the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882?
A.
A share in Partnership
B.
A claim for return of earnest money
C.
A claim for arrears of rent
D.
A copyright
Ans. (d)
87. Who is not competent to transfer his
property under transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A.
Blind
B.
Lamb
C.
Minor
D.
Hermit
Ans. (c)
88. Which
one of the following sections of Transfer or Property Act 1882 deals with Rule
Against Perpetuity?
A.
Section 13
B.
Section 14
C.
Section 15
D.
Section 17
Ans. (b)
89. Which one of the following sections of
the Transfer of Property Act defines charge?
(A) Section 100
(B)
Section 95
(C) Section 105
(D) Section
92
Ans. (a)
90. Section 53 A of the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882 deals with
A.
doctrine of frustration
B.
doctrine of lis pendence
C.
doctrine of severelity
D.
doctrine of part performance
Ans. (d)
91. Which
one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines
"universal donee"?
(A) Section 122
(B) Section
123
(C) Section 128
(D) Section
129
Ans. (c)
92. Which
one of the following is not transfer by an act of parties under Transfer of
Property Act?
(A) Succession (B) Sale
(C) Mortgage (D) Gift
Ans. (a)
93. Point out the correct answer. Under
Transfer of Property Act, 1882
A.
the salary of a pubic officer can be
transferred
B.
the salary of a public officer cannot be
transferred
C.
no provision regarding the transfer of
salary of a public officer is found in the act
D.
none of the above
Ans. (b)
94. The term 'sale' in the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882 has been defined under
(A) Section 53 (B) Section
54
(C) Section 55 (D) Section
56
Ans. (b)
95. Which
one of the following provisions of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 provides the
statutory duties of a mortgagee in possession?
(A) Section 76 (B) Section
77
(C) Section 78 (D) Section
79
Ans. (a)
96. The
provisions of Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 were substituted
by the Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act, and this provision came into force
with from
A.
December 31, 2002
B.
July 1, 2002
C.
October 30,2002
D.
Noovember2,2002
Ans. (a)
97. Condition restraining alienation of
property is given under
A.
Section 9 of the Transfer of property
Act.
B.
Section 10 of the Transfer of property
Act.
C.
Section 11 of the Transfer of property
Act.
D.
Section 12 of the Transfer of property
Act.
Ans. (b)
98. Point out the correct answer:
'A'
sells his agricultural land to B with a condition that B can cultivate only
wheat cannot grow the crops of paddy:
A.
The transfer is void
B.
The transfer is valid
C.
The condition is void
D.
Both (B) and (C) above
Ans. (d)
99. 'Lease' under Section 105 of the Transfer
Property Act, 1882 relates to
A.
a lease of immovable property
B.
a lease of movable property
C.
both movable and immovable property
D.
does not relate to any special property
Ans. (a)
100. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act
is concerned the doctrine of "marshalling"
A.
Section 55
B.
Section 56
C.
Section 60
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
101. Which of the following is not a movable property within the
Transfer of Property All 1882?
A.
standing timber
B.
fruit bearing trees
C.
right to take fish from a lake
D.
growing crops
Ans. (b)
102. Doctrine of subrogation applies to
A.
sale
B.
mortgage
C.
lease
D.
gift
Ans. (b)
103. Onerous gift under Transfer of Property Act,
1882 has been defined under.
A.
Section 129
B.
Section 128
C.
Section 127
D.
Section 126
Ans. (c)
104. In case of a gift, if done dies before
acceptance of the gift, the gift is
A.
valid
B.
void
C.
partly valid
D.
court is to decide
Ans. (b)
105. The doctrine “nemo dat quod non habet” under the Transfer of
Property Act is applied to
A.
Section 41, Section 42, Section 43 and
Section 44
B.
Section 53 and 54
C.
Section 45 and Section 46
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
106. Which of the following is not an actionable claim under the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A.
Right to claim money payable under Life
insurance act
B.
Right to claim decretal sum
C.
Right to claim arrears of rent of a
house
D.
Right to claim arrears of maintenance
Ans. (b)
107. The doctrine of Part performance under the Transfer or Property
Act, 1882 does not apply to:
A.
oral contracts
B.
standing timber
C.
if subject matter is grass
D.
all the above
Ans. (d)
108. Which one of the following transfers can be
made orally?
A.
lease from year to year
B.
surrender of lease
C.
exchange of immovable property exceeding
rupees one hundred
D.
simple mortgage
Ans. (b)
109. When does an unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer
under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A.
On attaining majority
B.
On attaining 21 years of age
C.
After marriage, if female
D.
As soon as he is born
Ans. (d)
110. A lease of immovable property from month to month is terminable,
on the part of lessor or lessee by
A.
one month notice
B.
three months notice
C.
fifteen days notice
D.
forty five days notice
Ans. (c)
I.P.C.
Qs. 111 to 135
111. Which one of the following is not essential
for commission of an offence?
A.
intention
B.
motive
C.
prohibited act
D.
punishment
Ans. (b)
112. Wrongful gain and wrongful loss have been defined under Indian
Penal code, 1860 in
A.
Section 22
B.
Section 23
C.
Section 24
D.
Section 27
Ans. (b)
113. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India
has held that wife cannot be charged harbouring her husband?
A.
State Vs. Ratan Singh
B.
State of Tamil Nadu Vs. Nalini
C.
Jai Narain Mishra Vs. State
D.
Sardara Singh Vs. State
Ans. (b)
114. Which provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deal with the
‘Solitary confinement’ and limits on solitary confinement?
A.
Section 68 and Section 69
B.
Section 59 and Section 60
C.
Section 73 and Section 74
D.
Section 71 and Section 72
Ans. (c)
115. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal code,
1860 provides that ‘Nothing is an offence which is done by a judge while acting
judicially?
A.
Section 75
B.
Section 76
C.
Section 77
D.
Section 79
Ans. (c)
116. Which one of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code,
1860 is based on Macnaughten’s Rule?
A.
Section 83
B.
Section 84
C.
Section 85
D.
Section 86
Ans. (b)
117. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code,
1860 provides that right of private defence of body extends to causing harm
short of death?
A.
Section 99
B.
Section 100
C.
Section 103
D.
Section 101
Ans. (d)
118. In which one of the following cases difference between common
intention and similar intention was discussed by the Privy council?
A.
Mahboob Shah vs. King Emperor
B.
Barendra Kumar Ghose vs. Emperor
C.
Srinivas Mal Barolia vs. Emperor
D.
In all the above
Ans. (a)
119. In which of the following cases husband and wife both were held
guilty of criminal conspiracy
A.
Tej Khan vs. State of M.P.
B.
Kuldeep Singh vs. State of Rajasthan
C.
Darshan Singh vs. State
D.
Pradumma vs. State
Ans. (a)
120. Punishment for being a member of unlawful assembly under Indian
Penal Code has been provided under
A.
Section 141
B.
Section 142
C.
Section 143
D.
Section 146
Ans. (c)
121. Dowry death under Indian Penal Code, 1860
has been put under the chapter
A.
offences against human body
B.
offences against marriage
C.
offences against law and justice
D.
offences against public nuisance
Ans. (a)
122. Which one of the following sections of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines “Thug”?
A.
Section 307
B.
Section 310
C.
Section 311
D.
Section 312
Ans. (b)
123. Which one of the following is the date of enforcement of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) January I, 1860 (B) July I, 1860
(C) January I, 1861 (D) January I, 1862
Ans. (d)
124. Minimum number of offenders for the commission of robbery under
Indian Penal Code, 1860 must be
(A) one person (B) two
persons
(C) five
persons (D) three persons
Ans. (a)
125. Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is
A.
a declaratory provision
B.
creates a distinct offence
C.
a rule of evidence
D.
All the above
Ans. (b)
126. Which one of the following elements is not essential for the
applications of Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A.
common intention
B.
commission of an offence
C.
number of offenders be five
D.
offence should be committed in
furtherance of common intention
Ans. (c)
127. Basudev vs. State of Pepsu AIR 1956 S.C. is
a leading case on
A.
Infancy
B.
Insanity
C.
Intoxication
D.
All the above
Ans. (c)
128. A intentionally pulls up a woman’s well without her consent to
make her afraid of, is liable for
A.
assault
B.
criminal force
C.
hurt
D.
defamation
Ans. (b)
129. Punishment for attempt to commit culpable homicide has been
provided in Indian Penal Code, 1860 under
A.
303
B.
305
C.
306
D.
308
Ans. (d)
130. A instigates B to burn the house of Z. B sets fire to the house
and at the same time commits theft of the property there. Whether A is guilty
of?
A.
abetting of theft
B.
abetting of burning of house
C.
abetting of theft and burning of house
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
131. x by putting z into fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces z
to sign on a blank paper and deliver it to z. z signs and delivers the paper to
x. Here x has committed.
A.
no offence
B.
robbery
C.
extortion
D.
cheating
Ans. (c)
132. Death caused by rash and negligent act is
covered in Indian Penal Code under
A.
Section 304
B.
Section 304 A
C.
Section 300 exceptions
D.
Section 301
Ans. (b)
133. Which of the following is not an ingredient
of theft?
A.
dishonest
B.
removal from possession
C.
any property
D.
without consent of the person in
possession
Ans. (c)
134. A has sexual intercourse with a widow with
her consent. A is guilty of
A.
rape
B.
adultery
C.
insulting modesty of widow
D.
no offence
Ans. (d)
135. Match list-I cases with list-II subjects and select correct
answer using code given below
List-I List-II
(cases) (subject)
1.
|
Kehar
Singh vs. Delhi Administration
|
(i)
Right of Private Defence
|
2.
|
Nawab
Ali vs State of U.P.
|
(ii)
Criminal Conspiracy
|
3.
|
Vishwanath
vs State of U.P.
|
(iii)
Common Intention
|
4.
|
Mahboob
Shah vs King Emperor
|
(iv)
Common object
|
(v)
Mistake of Fact
|
Code:
1 2 3 4
A.
ii iv I iii
B.
iii I v ii
C.
iii iv I ii
D.
ii I iv iii
Ans. (a)
Muslim Law Qs. 136 to 160
136. Which one of the following was appointed as
Khalifa after the death of Mohammad sahib,the Prophet
A.
Abu Hanifa
B.
Ummar
C.
Abu Bakr
D.
Ali Sahib
Ans. (c)
137. If a muslim husband has falsely charged his
wife with adultery, the process of retract is called
A.
Zihar
B.
lian
C.
Ila
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
138. The Dissolutions of Muslim Marriage Act,
1939 is based on the following school of Muslim Law:
A.
Hanafi school
B.
Shafi school
C.
Maliki school
D.
Zaidi school
Ans. (a)
139. Under Muslim Law, a divorce by Khula is a
divorce with the consent and at the instance of
A.
husband
B.
wife
C.
kazi
D.
husband and wife
Ans. (b)
140. Point out the incorrect answer: legal effects of divorce are
A.
Cohabitation becomes illegal
B.
The wife is required to observe Iddat
C.
Divorcee wife is not entitled to be
maintained by her former husband
D.
Right to contract other marriage is
accrued.
Ans. (c)
141. Sunni Muslims consider Muta Marriage as
A.
void
B.
voidable
C.
valid
D.
invalid
Ans. (a)
142. If a sunni muslim marry with a kitabiya girl, the marriage is
A.
valid
B.
invalid
C.
void
D.
irregular
Ans. (a)
143. Under Muslim law, a Muslim can make a Will of his property upto
the extend of
A.
one fourth of the property
B.
one third of the property
C.
one half (1/2) of the propery
D.
the entire property
Ans. (b)
144. In Muslim Law marriage contracted without witness is
A.
void
B.
valid
C.
invalid
D.
irregular
Ans. (d)
145. Under Muslim law a Muslim can make gift of his property upto the
extent of
A.
only 1/4 of his property
B.
only 1/3 of his property
C.
only 1/2 of his property
D.
the entire property
Ans. (d)
146. Which one of the following statements regarding
gift in Muslim law is correct?
A.
Gift can be made orally only
B.
Gift can be made only in writing
C.
Gift can be made orally and in writing both
ways .
D.
None is correct
Ans. (c)
147.
The most proper divorce is
A. Hasan
Talak
B.
Ahsan Talak
C.
Talak-ul-Sunna
D. None
of the above
Ans. (b)
148. When in a muslim marriage 'Mehr' is unspecified,
the wife is entitled to get
A.
Mehr-i-Muajjal
B.
Mehr-i- Muwajjal
C.
Mehr-i-Misl
D.
All of the above
Ans. (c)
149. A muslim is prohibited to have two wives at a time, if these two
wives are related to each other by
(A) consanguinity (B) affinity
(C) fosterage (D)
all the above
Ans. (d)
150. In Muslim Law when husband and wife both desire separation, the
transaction is known as
A.
Mubaraat
B.
Talak-in-bain
C.
Muta
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
151. A Muslim woman guilty of illicit relationship is
punishable for
A.
IzI
B.
Zina
C.
Khula
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
152. Muslim Jurisprudence is known as
A.
Fiqh
B.
Qiyas
C.
Koran
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
153. Widow’s right of retention for non-payment
of her dower is her
A.
personal right
B.
religious right
C.
traditional right
D.
right given under dissolution of Muslim
Marriage Act, 1939
Ans. (a)
154. Which is not a place of public worship?
A.
Mosque
B.
Imambara
C.
Dargah
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
155. Which one of the following gifts is not void
under Muslim law?
A.
A gift by a pardanashin lady
B.
A gift to an unborn person
C.
A gift to a dead person
D.
All of the above
Ans. (a)
156. The provisions of the dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939
give right of Judicial divorce of
A.
husband only
B.
wife only
C.
both husband and wife
D.
none of the above
Ans. (b)
157. Which of the following is not a primary
source of Muslim law?
A.
Quran
B.
Urf or Tammul
C.
Ijma
D.
Qiyas
Ans. (b)
158. Dower is
A.
a mark of respect to the wife
B.
a consideration to the marriage
C.
an essential incidence of marriage
D.
all of the above
Ans. (d)
159. According to Shia law to execute the
marriage presence of witness is
A.
not necessary
B.
necessary
C.
required two winessess
D.
required two male witnesses
Ans. (a)
160. An acknowledgment with regard to children
can be for
A.
son
B.
daughter
C.
only son not daughter
D.
both son and daughter
Ans. (d)
Hindu
Law Qs. 161 to 185
161. Under which one of the following sections of the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955 sapinda relationship has been defined?
A.
Section 3
B.
Sections 5
C.
Section 7
D.
Section 9
Ans. (a)
162. A petition for divorce with mutual consent under Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955 can be filled after.
A.
3 years
B.
2 years
C.
1 years
D.
6 months
Ans. (c)
163. Who amongst the following defined Hindu Law
as “Hindu Law is law of Smritis”?
A.
Derret
B.
Salmond
C.
Maine
D.
K.P. Rangaswami
Ans. (c)
164. In which of the following cases it was held that matrimonial
rights are not violative of Art. 14 and Art. 21 of the Constitution?
A.
T. Saritha vs. B. Subiya
B.
Harjinder vs. Harvinder
C.
Saroj vs. Sudarshan
D.
Swaraj vs. K.M. Garg
Ans. (c)
165. Under which one of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption
and Maintenance Act, 1956 a Hindu woman is empowered to adopt?
A.
Section 3
B.
Section 6
C.
Section 7
D.
Section 8
Ans. (d)
166. Can a
Hindu marry second time on the basis of written consent of his first wife
A.
yes
B.
no
C.
yes, if wife is more than 21 years of
age
D.
yes, if wife does not give birth to any
child in last 10 years.
Ans. (b)
167. Under which one of the following provisions of the Hindu
Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu has a right to alienate his interest in
Mitakshara coparcenary by will
A.
Section 6
B.
Section 30
C.
Section28
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
168. Where a Hindu male dies intestate leaving behind an ascendant
agnate, a descendant agnate and a collateral agnate, their order of succession
on preference basis shall be
A.
Descendant, Collateral, Ascendant
B.
Descendant, Ascendant, Collateral
C.
Ascendant, Descendant, Collateral
D.
Ascendant, Collateral, Descendant
Ans. (b)
169. The case of Hanuman Prasad vs. Mst. Baboee
is related to
A.
adoption
B.
marriage
C.
guardianship
D.
maintenance
Ans. (c)
170. Which one of the following sections of the Hindu Marriage Act
provides Restitution of Conjugal rights?
A.
Section 9
B.
Section 10
C.
Section 5
D.
Section 11
Ans. (a)
171. The separate property of a Hindu male dying
intestate is succeeded by
A.
father
B.
mother
C.
brother
D.
sister
Ans. (b)
172. Karta of Joint Hindu Family is
A.
father
B.
mother
C.
grandmother
D.
grandmother’s (great grandmother)
Ans. (a)
173. A 'Joint Hindu family does not include
A.
married son
B.
married daughter
C.
adopted son
D.
adopted daughter
Ans. (b)
174. A Hindu may be
(A) Buddhist (B)
Jaini
(C) Aryasmaji (D)
All the above
Ans. (d)
175. If a Hindu male of 30 years of age adopts a female child of 15
years of age, this adoption is
(A) valid (B)
void
(C) viodable (D) irregular
Ans. (b)
176. The constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955 was tested in
A.
Saroj Rani Vs. Sudarshan AIR 1984S.C.
B.
Shakuntla Bai Vs. Kulkarni AIR 1989 S.C.
C.
Sureshtha Devi Vs. Om Prakash AIR 1992
S.C.
D.
Nanda Vs. Bina Nanda AIR 1988 S.C.
Ans. (a)
177. Which one of the following sections of H Succession Act, 1956
makes provision 'notional partition'?
(A) Section 14 (B) Section
10
(C) Section 6 (D) Section
18
Ans. (b)
178. Sapinda relationship extends to
A.
fourth generation through mother
B.
three generation through mother
C.
five generation through mother
D.
none of the above
Ans. (b)
179. A groom of 25 years marries a bride of 15 years of age under
Hindu Law, the marriage is
A.
illegal
B.
void
C.
voidable
D.
valid but punishable
Ans. (d)
180. In which of the following cases it was first time held that "Hindu
is by birth and can also be made"?
A. Morarjee
Vs. Administrator General of Chennai
B.
Ibrahim Vs. Ibrahim
C.
Jabala Vs. Dharam
D. Parvati
Vs. Jagdish
Ans. (b)
181. Who among the following is eligible to adopt
a son under Hindu Law?
A.
who has no son surviving
B.
who has one natural born son living
C.
who has already adopted a son
D.
whose son has separated from him after
partition
Ans. (a)
182. A Hindu girl wishes to marry her mother's sister's adopted Hindu
son who happens to be her childhood friend since the preadoption days. Such a
marriage under Hindu Law will be
A.
valid
B.
void
C.
voidable
D.
none of the above
Ans. (b)
183. Under Hindu Law an unmarried woman adopts a child, later on she
marries a man. This man shall be deemed to be the
A.
natural father of her child
B.
adopted father of her child
C.
step father of her child
D.
none of the above
Ans. (c)
184. A Hindu who has adopted a son is subsequently blessed with
natural born twins, a boy and a girl. Now he wishes to give the adopted son to
his friend in adoption. The Hindu
A.
cannot give this child into adoption
B.
can give this child into adoption
C.
can give only after prior permission of
the court
D.
can move the court for revocata earlier
adoption
Ans. (a)
185. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) 2005
confers upon a Hindu woman
A.
a right to claim partition
B.
a right to ownership as coparcener
C.
a right of residence and partition in parental
dwelling house even marriage
D.
all the above
Ans. (d)
Evidence
Qs. 186 to 200
186. The burden of proof generally lies on
A.
prosecution
B.
accused
C.
the discretion of the court
D.
on both
Ans. (a)
187. Under which one of the following provision of the Indian Evidence
Act contents electronic records may be proved?
A.
Section 65 A
B.
Section 65 B
C.
Section 66
D.
Section 67
Ans. (a)
188. Which one of the following sections of the Indian
Evidence Act defines admission?
(A) Section 16 (B) Section
17
(C) Section 15 (D) Section
18
Ans. (b)
189. A person shall be deemed to be dead if he
remained unheard for
(A) 5 years (B) 7
years
(C) 10 years (0) 12
years
Ans. (b)
190. Under Indian Evidence Act, the evident! given by a dumb witness
will be regarded as
A.
written evidence
B.
documentary evidence
C.
oral evidence
D.
all the above
Ans. (c)
191. Under which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence
Act previous 9000 character is relevant in criminal cases
(A) Section 18 (B)
Section 26
(C) Section 49 (0)
Section 53
Ans. (d)
192. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence"
Act provides the provision regarding 'plea of Alibi'
(A) Section 7 (B)
Section 6
(C) Section 4 (D)
Section 11
Ans. (d)
193. “Leading question” has been defined in
Indian Evidence Act under
(A) Section 41 (B)
Section 121
(C) Section 141 (D) Section 144
Ans. (c)
194. Public documents under Indian Evidence Act
have been stated under
(A) Section 72 (D) Section 74
(C) Section 73 (E)
Section 75
Ans. (b)
195. Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act
applies to:
A.
testamentary documents
B.
non testamentary documents
C.
testamentary and non testamentary
documents
D.
none of the above
Ans. (c)
196. Sec. 112 of the Indian Evidence Act applies
when there is a dispute regarding.
A.
maternity of child
B.
paternity of child
C.
both (A) and (6)
D.
either (A) or (8)
Ans. (b)
197. In Evidence Act, leading questions can be
asked during
A. cross
examination
B.
examination in chief
C.
re-examination
D. all
the above
Ans. (a)
198. A voluntary confession is admissible in
evidence
A.
when made to a police officer
B.
when made to Magistrate of competent
jurisdiction
C.
when made to a village sarpanch with
request to save him from police
D.
when made to a police officer who kept
him in his custody
Ans. (b)
199. Maxim ‘omnia praesumuntur rite esse aeta’
means
A.
all facts are presumed to be rightly
done
B.
all facts are presumed to be not rightly
done
C.
all acts are presumed to be wrongly
done.
D.
all acts are presumed to be not wrongly
done.
Ans. (a)
200. Contents of a documents under Section 59 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
A.
can be proved by oral evidence
B.
cannot be proved by oral evidence
C.
may or may not be proved by oral
evidence
D.
can only be proved by oral evidence
under the orders of the court
Ans. (b)
Courtesy:-
Legal Point Foundation
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