03 March, 2016

Solved Question Paper of Bihar Judicial Exam., 2000

Bihar Judicial Exam., 2000

1.         How many countries are members of South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC)?
A.          6
B.           7
C.           8
D.          10
Ans.    (c)

2.         The minimum eligible age of a candidate for election as the President of India
A.          25 years
B.           30 years
C.           35 years
D.          40 years
Ans.    (c)

3.         Who was the first lady president of Indian National Congress?
A.          Smt Annie Besant
B.           Smt Kamla Nehru
C.           Smt Sarojini Naidu
D.          Smt Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
Ans.    (a)

4.         The famous river Nile belongs to
A.          Iraq
B.           Egypt
C.           Syria
D.          Iran
Ans.    (b)

5.         India occupies first position in the production of
A.          Rice
B.           Wheat
C.           Tea
D.          Sugarcane
Ans.    (d)

6.         The largest deposists of Uranium in India are found in
A.          Bihar
B.           Kerala
C.           Rajasthan
D.          U.P.
Ans.    (a)

7.         The man who discovered Mount Everest as the highest peak of the Himalayas was
A.          A geologist
B.           A surveyor
C.           An astronomer
D.          A scientist
Ans.    (a)

8.         Which stadium is popularly know as “ Cricket ka kasha”?
A.          Lord’s
B.           Oval
C.           Eden Garden
D.          Niyaj
Ans.    (a)

9.         Gary Kasparov is associated with the game of
A.          Chess
B.           Tennis
C.           table Tennis
D.          Billiard
Ans.    (a)

10.       The term “ Third Eye” is associated with
A.          Tennis
B.           Hockey
C.           Cricket
D.          Badminton
Ans.    (c)

11.       India Wins Freedom is written by
A.          Abdul kalam Azad
B.           Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C.           Vir Savarkar
D.          None of these
Ans.    (a)

12.       Who is the author of the book ‘Shame’?
A.          Shakespeare
B.           Salman Rushdie
C.           Desmond Bagley
D.          Robert Ludlum
Ans.    (b)

13.       'Daughter of the East' is an autobiography of
A.          Indira Gandhi
B.           Benazir Bhutto
C.           Chandrika Kumar Tunge
D.          None of these
Ans.    (b)

14.       Buddhism became global religion due to the efforts of
(A)      Bindusar        (B)      Ashoka
(C)      Kanishka       (D)      Harsha
Ans.    (b)

15.       Out of the following the oldest dynasty is
(A)      Mauryas         (B)      Nandas
(C)      Pallavas         (D)      Guptas
Ans.    (b)

16.       The British Prime Minister during whose period India achieved independence was
A.          Winston Churchill
B.           Clement Attlee
C.           Anthony Eden
D.          Harold Wilson
Ans.    (b)

17.       Ajanta Paintings depict scenes from the
(A)      Ramayana      (B)      Mahabharata
(C)      Jatakas           (D)      Upanishads
Ans.    (b)

18.       'Arjuna' award is given for excellent performance in the field of
(A)      Sports                         (B)      Literature
(C)      Films             (D)      None of these
Ans.    (a)

19.       India's highest award given to army personnel for bravery is
(A)      Ashoka Chakra         (B)      Mahavir Chakra
(C)      Paramvir Chakra      (D)      Shaurya Chakra
Ans.    (c)

20.       The person to receive the first Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavna Award was
A.          B. Satyanarayana Reddy
B.           Mother Teresa
C.           Vijay Tendulkar
D.          Bhisham Sahani
Ans.    (b)

21.       The solar system was discovered by
(A)      Copernicus    (B)      Kepler
(C)      Aryabhata      (D)      None of these
Ans.    (a)

22.       Tamrapatra is
A.          the name of an ancient village
B.           a copper plate belonging to the Maurya Dynasty
C.           a group of stars
D.          a plaque given to freedom fighters by the Government of India
Ans.    (b)

23.       The biggest tribe of India is
(A)      Bheel             (B)      Gonds
(C)      Munda            (D)      Santhal
Ans.    (b)

24.       A blind-folded lady holding a balance in her hand is the universal symbol of
            (A)      Handicapped             (B)      Peace
            (C)      Justice                        (D)      Eye-donation
Ans.    (c)

25.       The term "Habeas Corpus" is associated with
            (A)      Microbiology                        (B)      Military system
            (C)      Legal system                         (D)      Urea-production
Ans.    (c)

26.       Sound does not travel in
(A)      water             (B)      solid
(C)      gas                  (D)      vaccum
Ans.    (d)

27.       The weight of an object at the poles is greater than at the equator. This is because
A.          of the shape of earth
B.           the attraction of the moon is maximum at the earth’s suface
C.           the attraction of the sun is maximum at the earth’s surfact
D.          gravitational pull is more at the earth’s surface
Ans.    (d)

28.       The water in open pond remains cool even in hot summer because
A.          of continuous evaporation of water
B.           water absorbs heat less rapidly than the atmosphere
C.           water absorbs heat less rapidly than the atmosphere
D.          water absorbs heat more rapidly than the atmosphere
Ans.    (d)

29.       In the earthen pot, cooling of the water depends upon
A.          outside temperature
B.           atmospheric humidity
C.           wind
D.          all the above
Ans.    (d)

30.       Green plants in sea are useful for respiration of fish because
A.          they give out oxygen
B.           they give out carbon dioxide
C.           they give out oxygen and carbon dioxide simultaneously
D.          they take oxygen and give out carbon dioxide
Ans.    (a)

31.       Pulse reading is done by doctors to find out
(A)      Temperature             (B)      Heart beat
(C)      Blood pressure         (D)      Respiration
Ans.    (b)

32.       In high mountain regions bleeding through nose occurs because
A.          the pressure of the blood capillaries s higher than outside pressure
B.           the pressure at high altitude is greater than that of plains
C.           blood pressure increases at high altitude
D.          blood pressure decreases at high altitude
Ans.    (b)

33.       Which part of human body coordinates the various functions of different organs?
(A)      Brain             (B)      Nerves
(C)      Heart             (D)      Liver
Ans.    (a)

34.       The science dealing with the study of human beauty is
(A)      Calology        (B)      Cryptology
(C)      Psycology      (D)      Physiology
Ans.    (a)

35.       During sleep blood pressure of a man
A.          increases
B.           decreases
C.           remains consul
D.          first decrease and then increase
Ans.    (b)

36.       Sun rays in the morning are less hot than at noon because
A.          rays in the morning travel longer distance than noon.
B.           sun is less hotter in the morning
C.           earth absorbs less heat in the morning
D.          none of these
Ans.    (a)

37.       In the human body, most of the digestion occurs in the
A.          Stomatch
B.           Pancreas
C.           Small intestines
D.          Large intestines
Ans.    (c)

38.       Fruits keep fresh in a refrigerator for longer period because
A.          there are no dust particles in the refrigerator
B.           at a low temperature biochemical processes proceed at low rate
C.           there is more oxygen available
D.          there is no oxygen available
Ans.    (b)

39.       Lunar eclipse occurs when
A.          Sun comes between earth and moon
B.           Moon comes between earth and moon
C.           Earth comes between sun and moon
D.          Sun, earth and moon form a triangle
Ans.    (c)

40.       After taking heavy diet, one experiences difficulty in breathing. This is because
A.          diaphragm can move less freely
B.           sternum does not move
C.           the movement of muscles becomes slow
D.          the air passage is obstructed by the epiglottis.
Ans.    (a)

41.       Which metal is mixed with gold while making ornaments?
A.          Zinc
B.           Copper
C.           Silver
D.          Platinum
Ans.    (b)

42.       Apple’s most characteristic feature was that it was
A.       a weather satellite
B.        an Indian satellite
C.        a geostationary statellite
D.       None of these
Ans.    (c)

43.       The concept of ‘Zero’ was first given by
A.          Greeks
B.           Arabs
C.           Indians
D.          Egyptians
Ans.    (d)

44.       A fuse wire is used in an electric circuit to
A.       Minimise the loss of current in transmission
B.        Maintain the voltage level
C.        Prevent the heating of the electric wire
D.       Prevent too high an electric current form passing through the circuit.
Ans.    (d)

45.       Distance in navigation is measured in
A.          Nautical Miles
B.           Kilometers
C.           Decibels
D.          Chains
Ans.    (a)

46.       Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
A.          Pure water
B.           Cold water
C.           Warm water
D.          Distilled water
Ans.    (c)

47.       Retina in the eye acts as a
A.          shutter in the camera
B.           lens in the camera
C.           film in the camera
D.          None of these
Ans.    (b)

48.       The precious stone diamond is nothing but
A.          a high quality natural glass
B.           a variety of mica
C.           a, form of carbon
D.          a special type of sand
Ans.    (c)

49.       The gas used in soda water is
A.          Carbon monoxide
B.           Carbon dioxide
C.           Oxygen
D.          Marsh gas
Ans.    (b)

50.       Oxygen is transported to every cell of the body through
A.          red blood cells
B.           blood platelets
C.           white blood cells
D.          hormones
Ans.    (a)

51.       The Indian Evidence Act
A.          applies to proceedings before an arbitrator
B.           does not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator
C.           does not apply to appeals
D.          is basically a substantive law
Ans.    (b)

52.       Whenever it is provided in the Indian Evidence Act that the Court may presume a fact
A.          may call for proof of that fact
B.           the court is bound to regard that fact as proved
C.           the parties can presume that fact as proved
D.          that fact is conclusive proof
Ans.    (a)

53.       Under the Provisions of the Indian Evidence Act
A.          admissions and confessions have the same meaning
B.           admissions and confessions have the different meaning
C.           admissions are a matter in a criminal trial
D.          confessions are a matter in a civil trial
Ans.    (b)

54.       Relevant entries in the books of account alone
A.          are sufficient to charge any person with liability
B.           can be taken into consideration in a criminal trial
C.           are not sufficient to charge any person with liability
D.          can help a judge in deciding a suit
Ans.    (c)

55.       The question before the Court…………… of wreck of a ship, protest made by the captain………….attendance cannot be produced.
A.          is not a relevant fact
B.           the judge cannot rely on it
C.           can be proved by hearsay evidence
D.          is a relevant fact
Ans.    (d)

56.       In criminal cases the fact that the person accused is of good character
A.          Is not a relevant fact
B.           is a relevant fact
C.           cannot be proved
D.          is conclusive fact
Ans.    (b)

57.       Contents of a document can be proved by
A.          primary or secondary evidence
B.           is examining a witness who has not seen the document
C.           by taking extraneous evidence into consideration
D.          without any evidence
Ans.    (a)

58.       When a document purporting to be power of attorney, duly authenticated as required by law is produced
A.          the court can take it as conclusive proof
B.           the court may presume its execution and authentication
C.           the court shall presume its execution and authentication
D.          nothing is required to be proved
Ans.    (c)

59.       The burden of proving the existence of circumstance bringing the case within the General Exceptions in Indian Penal Code is
A.          upon the prosecution
B.           upon the Magistrate
C.           upon none
D.          upon the accused person
Ans.    (d)

60.       Admissibility of evidence is to be decided by
A.          the parties to a trial
B.           the judge
C.           the public prosecutor
D.          the advocates of the parties
Ans.    (b)

61.       A is accused before the Court of Session of attempting to murder of a police officer whilst on his trial before B, a Sessions Judge.
A.          A can be examine as to what occurred
B.           A cannot examined as to what occurred
C.           A questions cannot be asked to A
D.          A cannot be administered oath
Ans.    (a)

62.       A sentence of imprisonment for life passed by an Assistant Sessions Judge
A.          is subject to confirmation by the High Court
B.           is beyond his power
C.           is not subject confirmation by the High Court
D.          can be passed without hearing the parties
Ans.    (b)

63.       In certain cases any police officer
A.          cannot arrest any person without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant
B.           can arrest any person without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant
C.           without an order
D.          without a warrant
Ans.    (b)

64.       Any property which may be alleged or suspected to have been stolen
A.          cannot be seized by a police officer
B.           can be seized by a police officer
C.           can be sold by a police officer
D.          can be appropriated by a police officer
Ans.    (b)

65.       If a husband has contracted marriage with another woman or keeps a mistress.
A.          is just ground for his wife to refuse to live with him
B.           is not just ground for his wife to live with him
C.           is just ground for his wife to marry another person
D.          is just ground for the husband to seek divorce
Ans.    (a)

66.       A Magistrate making an order of alteration of the amount of maintenance
A.          may increase the amount above Rs. 500/- per month
B.           cannot increase the amount in excess of Rs. 500/-
C.           can dismiss the application in limine
D.          can increase the amount without hearing the parties
Ans.    (a)

67.       Where two courts subordinate to the same High Court Court have taken cognizance of the same offence and a question arises as to which of them shall try that offence
A.          the question shall be decided by any one of these Courts
B.           the question cannot be decided by any Court
C.           the question shall be decided by the concerned High Court
D.          the question can be left to the parties.
Ans.    (c)

68.       If a complaint in writing is made to a Magistrate who is not competent to take cognizance of the offence
A.          he shall dismiss the complainant
B.           he shall punish the complainant
C.           he shall decide the complaint
D.          he shall return it for presentation to the proper court with a endorsement to that effect
Ans.    (d)

69.       Bail to a person apprehending arrest
A.          can be granted by the High Court or the Court of Session
B.           can be granted by a Metropolitan Magistrate
C.           is a matter of right
D.          cannot be considered by any Court
Ans.    (a)

70.       An appeal against acquittal made by a Metropolitan Magistrate shall lie to
A.          the Sessions Court
B.           the High Court
C.           the same Court
D.          the lower Court
Ans.    (a)

71.       The Registrar of a Provincial Small Cause can, when conferred with jurisdiction by the State Government.
A.          try suits of unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction
B.           try suits upto limited pecuniary jurisdiction
C.           cannot try any suit
D.          can also decide criminal cases
Ans.    (b)

72.       A Court of Small Causes, under the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act
A.          cannot take congnizance of suits specified in second schedule
B.           can take cognizance of all suits of Civil nature
C.           can entertain criminal complaints
D.          can decide matrimonial cases also
Ans.    (b)

73.       Provincial Small Cause Courts
A.          can try a suit against the Government. (Union or State)
B.           can try a suit relating to mortgages
C.           cannot try a suit against the Government (Union or State)
D.          can try a suit for damages for malicious prosecution
Ans.    (b)

74.       An appeal against an order of the Provincial Small Cause Court, if appealable, shall be made to
A.          the District Court
B.           the High Court
C.           the Metropolitan Magistrates Court
D.          the City Civil Court
Ans.    (a)

75.       Save as provided by the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act a decree or order made under the provisions of the said Act shall be
A.          appeablable
B.           reviewed
C.           final
D.          no decree or order
Ans.    (a)

76.       Say which of the following suits are excepted from the cognizance of the provincial small cause courts
A.          a suit to obtain injunction
B.           a suit to restrain waste
C.           a suit for specific performance of a contract
D.          a suit for recovery of rent other that house rent
Ans.    (d)

77.       “Court” as defined in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
A.          means the principal Civil Court of Jurisdiction in a district and includes the High Court
B.           includes may Civil Courts of a grade Inferior to such principal Civil Court or any Court of Small Causes
C.           means the Metropolitan Magistrate Court
D.          means the Revenue Courts
Ans.    (a)

78.       Matters clearly illegal or purely criminal
A.          can be referred to arbitration
B.           cannot be referred to arbitration
C.           can be referred to Sessions Court
D.          can be referred to Criminal Courts
Ans.    (b)

79.       Specific question of law in arbitration
A.          cannot be referred to arbitration
B.           can be referred to arbitration
C.           can be decided by the parties to arbitration
D.          can be decided by the criminal courts
Ans.    (a)

80.       A party to an arbitration agreement
A.          should apply for the stay before taking any step in the proceeding and be fore filing a written statement
B.           can apply at any stage before passing of the decree
C.           cannot apply for stay
D.          can refer the matter to a Sessions Court
Ans.    (b)

81.       The parties to an arbitration
A.          cannot appoint more than two arbitrators
B.           are free to determine the number of arbitrators provided that such number shall not be an even number
C.           cannot appoint an arbitrator without the leave of the Court
D.          can appoint an uneven number of arbitrators
Ans.    (b)

82.       An arbitrator
A.          must be a person of Indian nationality
B.           may be a minor
C.           may be of any nationality unless otherwise agreed by the parties
D.          may be a person interested in the subject matter
Ans.    (c)

83.       An arbitrator
A.          can be removed if he is not an insolvent
B.           can be removed if he appeared as a witness in prosecution in a secret proceedings against the party seeking to revoke
C.           can be removed even if he is not guilty of misconduct
D.          can be removed if he is found to be indebted to a party
Ans.    (c)

84.       The arbitral tribunal
A.          shall not be bound by the Code of Civil Procedure or the Indian Evidence Act
B.           shall follow the Code of Civil Procedure
C.           shall follow the Indian Evidence Act
D.          shall follow the arbitrary procedure
Ans.    (a)

85.       Refusing an adjournment asked for without sufficient cause
A.          is misconduct of an arbitrator
B.           is not misconduct of an arbitrator
C.           vitiates the proceedings
D.          shall be amended by the parties to the suit
Ans.    (c)

86.       The Orders and Rules in the First Schedule of the Code of Civil Procedure
A.          can be amended by the Parliament
B.           can be amended by a High Court or the State Legislature
C.           can be amended by the Court hearing the suit
D.          can be amended by the parties to the suit
Ans.    (a)

87.       The Orders and Rules in the First Schedule of the Code of Civil Procedure
A.          are mere guidelines
B.           will prevail over the provisions of a Sections
C.           cannot override the provisions in a Section
D.          the courts are not bound to follow them
Ans.    (c)

88.       Subjects to the pecuniary or other limitations prescribed by any law suits for recovery of possession of immovable property must be instituted in the court
A.             within whose jurisdiction both the parties reside
B.              within whose jurisdiction the defendant resides
C.              within whose jurisdiction the plaintiff resides
D.             within whose local limits of jurisdiction the property is situated
Ans.    (d)

89.       The principle of Res Judicata
A.          applies to criminal proceedings also
B.           applies to suit only
C.           applies to execution proceedings also
D.          can be decided by the parties to the suit
Ans.    (c)

90.       Compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claim or defence can be awarded upto
A.          Rs. 10,000/-
B.           Rs. 1,000/-
C.           Rs. 500/-
D.          Rs. 3000/-
Ans.    (d)

91.       Books of account
A.          are liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree
B.           are not liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree
C.           are no evidence in the eye of law
D.          can be the sole evidence to decide a suit
Ans.    (b)

92.       An appeal shall lie
A.          from all orders passed by the Court
B.           only from such orders as provided in the Code of Civil Procedure
C.           from none of the orders passed by the District Courts
D.          from none of the decrees passed by the District Courts
Ans.    (b)

93.       The Code of Civil Procedure
A.          exempts Ministers of States from personal appearance in Court
B.           does not exempt any person form personal appearance in Court
C.           exempts advocates from personal appearance in Courts
D.          exempts Municipal Commissioners from personal appearance in Courts
Ans.    (a)

94.       A plaintiff
A.          cannot unite several causes of action in the same suit
B.           can unite several causes of action in the same suit against the same defendant
C.           unite only some causes of action in a suit
D.          unite only the questions of law in a suit
Ans.    (b)

95.       The Court
A.          can allow amendment pleading at any stage of the proceeding
B.           a party can amend its pleadings at any stage
C.           cannot allow amendment of pleadings
D.          can allow amendment of written statement only
Ans.    (a)

96.       The Court
A.          has no power to record admissions of parties any stage of the proceedings
B.           has power to record admissions only on issues of law
C.           has power to record admissions of parties at any stage of the proceedings
D.          cannot record admissions at all
Ans.    (c)

97.       No one shall be ordered to attend the Court in person to give evidence
A.          unless he resides within 50 kilometers from the Court
B.           unless the resides within 100 kilometers from the Court house
C.           unless he resides within 100 kilometers from the Court
D.          unless the resides within 500 kilometers from the Court house
Ans.    (a)

98.       Affidavits to be filed in a Court can be
A.          authenticated by a Minister of State
B.           cannot be authenticated except by the judge presiding
C.           authenticated by a  Judge, a Magistrate or a Notary
D.          authenticated by an advocate
Ans.    (c)

99.       An application for review of an order or a decree can be made
A.          to the appellate court
B.           by an advocate for a party
C.           by a Sessions Judge
D.          to the Court that made the order or passed the decree
Ans.    (a)

100.    Inherent powers of the Court can be exercised
A.          for the ends of justice or to prevent the abuse of the process of the Court
B.           even when there is a specific provision in the Code of Civil Procedure
C.           to help a party
D.          to defeat the ends of justice
Ans.    (a)

Legal Point Foundation


No comments: