16 July, 2026

AIBE Previous Year Question Papers (2011–2026): A Free Practice Archive Every Law Graduate Should Bookmark

If you're staring down the All India Bar Examination and wondering where to even begin, here's a piece of advice that's stood the test of time: stop hunting for new material and start working through old papers. Nothing prepares you for AIBE quite like sitting with the actual questions that have appeared over the years.

That's exactly why I've put together this archive: every AIBE paper from the very first exam in 2011 right up to AIBE-XXI in 2026, all converted into free online practice tests you can attempt in a proper timed setting.

Why Bother with Old Papers?

It's tempting to think past papers are outdated the moment a new syllabus circular comes out. In my experience, that's rarely true. The AIBE tends to repeat itself more than most candidates expect, with the same statutes, the same procedural questions, and the same conceptual traps dressed up slightly differently each year.

Working through these papers does a few things for you. It shows you what the exam actually looks like, rather than what you imagine it looks like from a coaching class syllabus. It gets you used to answering under time pressure, which matters more than people admit, since a lot of AIBE candidates know the law perfectly well and still run out of time. And over enough papers, patterns start to emerge: certain acts, certain topics, certain kinds of questions that show up again and again. Once you start noticing those, your revision gets a lot more targeted.

The Full Archive: AIBE-I (2011) to AIBE-XXI (2026)

1.      AIBE-2026,XXI,2026 held on 7 June, 2026 SET CODE-A

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a586002dc76d637056643b0&defaultLanguage=en-US

2.      AIBE-2025-XX, 2025 held on 30 November 2025 SET CODE A

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585fe3a22d043314c9f43e&defaultLanguage=en-US

3.      All India Bar Examination-XIX, 2024 held on 22nd December 2024 SET CODE A

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585fc8401aa126e5420d56&defaultLanguage=en-US

4.      All India Bar Examination-XVIII,2023 held on 10 December 2023 SET CODE-D

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585fb0e89d8e549259782f&defaultLanguage=en-US

5.      All India Bar Examination-XVII, 2023 held on 5th February 2023

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f986e95a05fc694e363&defaultLanguage=en-US

6.      All India Bar Examination-XVI, 2021 held on 31st October 2021

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f7d035912621f44d011&defaultLanguage=en-US

7.      All India Bar Examination-XV, 2021 held on 24th January, 2021

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f631034e869ee99f3a6&defaultLanguage=en-US

8.      All India Bar Examination-XIV, 2019 held on 15th September 2019

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f48562ab125ca8f6f07&defaultLanguage=en-US

9.      All India Bar Examination-XIII, 2018 held on 23rd December 2018

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f2cb5d37835e9409787&defaultLanguage=en-US

10.  All India Bar Examination-XII, 2018 held on 10th June, 2018

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f15035912b1fe44cfff&defaultLanguage=en-US

11.  All India Bar Examination - XI, 2017 held on 3rd December 2017

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585ef979334a10b31fd848&defaultLanguage=en-US

12.  All India Bar Examination- X, 2017 held on 26th March, 2017

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585ec9c778cfff96474246&defaultLanguage=en-US

13.  All India Bar Examination - IX, 2026 held on 6th March 2016

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585eaa8a50006cccf91461&defaultLanguage=en-US

14.  All India Bar Examination-VIII , 2015 held on 24th May, 2015

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585e8c3829bb46ed47c643&defaultLanguage=en-US

15.  All India Bar Examination-VII , 2014 held on 7th September, 2014

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585e61339fc3276066c482&defaultLanguage=en-US

16.  All India Bar Examination-V , 2013 held on 25th August, 2013

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585e428d14a52a02ee265b&defaultLanguage=en-US

17.  All India Bar Examination-IV , 2012 held on 9th December, 2012

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585e1b3b3752a2d684f783&defaultLanguage=en-US

18.  All India Bar Examination-III , 2012 held on 8th January, 2012

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585dfc5cea22f291d5b8e0&defaultLanguage=en-US

19.  All India Bar Examination , 2011 held on 24th July 2011

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585c5d445277362553ec97&defaultLanguage=en-US

 

 

Every paper is set up as a free online test, so click the link and you'll go straight into a simulated exam environment.

A Few Thoughts on How to Actually Use These

Just clicking through a paper isn't enough on its own. How you use it matters as much as how many you attempt.

Try to sit for each paper under real time constraints rather than working through it leisurely with your notes open. It feels harder, but that's the point. It's the only way to know if you're actually exam-ready. And don't stop at your score. Go back through every question you got wrong (and honestly, a few you got right by guessing) and figure out why the correct answer is correct. That's where the real learning happens.

It also helps to keep a running note of topics that keep showing up, such as certain sections of the CrPC, certain Constitutional provisions, and professional ethics questions, so your last-minute revision has some direction instead of being a blind sweep through the whole syllabus. And try to make this a regular habit rather than a last-week cram. Even one paper a week in the months before your exam adds up to a lot of exposure by the time you sit for AIBE.

Prefer Studying on Your Phone?

These papers are also available through our mobile app if you'd rather practice on the go. If you want access, just write to me at miglani786@gmail.com and our team will get back to you.

A Closing Note

There's no shortcut to clearing AIBE, but there is a shortcut to preparing smart, and it's simply doing enough of these papers, properly, that the exam stops feeling unfamiliar. Whether this is your first attempt or your third, I hope this archive saves you some time and gives your preparation a bit more structure.

Wishing you all the best for AIBE.

By Dr. Deepak Miglani

#AIBE #AllIndiaBarExamination #BarCouncilOfIndia #AIBEPreparation #LawExam #LegalEducation #AIBEMockTest #LawGraduates #BarExamIndia #LegalCareer #AIBE2026 #StudyLaw #LawStudents #JudiciaryExam #AdvocateLife

 

26 September, 2025

Cheating and Criminal Breach of Trust Cannot Co-Exist on the Same Allegations: Supreme Court



Introduction

In a landmark judgment delivered on 24 September 2025, the Supreme Court of India has clarified that the offences of cheating (Section 420 IPC / Section 318 BNS) and criminal breach of trust (Section 406 IPC / Section 316 BNS) cannot be alleged simultaneously on the basis of the same set of facts. The Court emphasized that both offences are “antithetical” in nature, and therefore cannot co-exist.

The judgment was delivered by a Bench comprising Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice R. Mahadevan in the case Arshad Neyaz Khan vs State of Jharkhand & Another (Criminal Appeal No. ___ of 2025; arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 3606 of 2024).

Background of the Case

The dispute arose from an agreement for sale executed in 2013. The appellant, Arshad Neyaz Khan, agreed to sell certain immovable properties to the complainant, Md. Mustafa, for a total consideration of ₹43,00,000. An advance of ₹20,00,000 was paid, but the sale deed was never executed, nor was the money refunded.

After nearly eight years, in 2021, the complainant filed a case alleging offences under Sections 406 (criminal breach of trust), 420 (cheating), and 120B (criminal conspiracy) IPC. An FIR was also registered. While the High Court refused to quash the proceedings, the appellant approached the Supreme Court.



Supreme Court’s Observations

The Supreme Court undertook a detailed analysis of the provisions and judicial precedents.

1.      On Cheating (Section 420 IPC):

o   For cheating, a fraudulent or dishonest intention at the inception of the transaction is essential.

o   Mere failure to keep a promise later cannot amount to cheating.

o   In the present case, there was no material to suggest that the appellant had dishonest intention from the beginning.

2.      On Criminal Breach of Trust (Section 406 IPC):

o   This offence requires lawful entrustment of property and subsequent dishonest misappropriation.

o   The complainant failed to prove how the property was entrusted or misappropriated.

o   Every breach of contract cannot be converted into a criminal breach of trust unless dishonest intention is evident.

3.      Antithetical Nature of the Offences:

o   In Delhi Race Club (1940) Ltd. vs. State of UP (2024), the Court had earlier clarified the distinction.

o   Cheating involves deception at inception, whereas breach of trust involves lawful entrustment followed by dishonesty.

o   Both cannot exist together in the same factual scenario.

4.      Delay and Mala Fide Allegations:

o   The complaint was filed after eight years, raising doubts on its bona fides.

o   The Court cautioned against misuse of criminal proceedings for settling civil disputes.

By quashing the complaint and FIR, the Supreme Court reiterated the principle that criminal law should not be misused as a tool for harassment or to pressurize parties in civil disputes. This judgment provides much-needed clarity to distinguish between cheating and criminal breach of trust, strengthening the jurisprudence on criminal liability in contractual matters.

The decision is a guiding precedent for lawyers, law students, and judiciary aspirants, reaffirming the Court’s stand against conflating distinct offences in criminal law.

Key Takeaways

  • Cheating requires proof of dishonest intention from the beginning of the transaction.
  • Criminal Breach of Trust requires proof of entrustment and subsequent misappropriation.
  • Both offences are mutually exclusive and cannot be alleged together on the same facts.
Delay in filing complaints and misuse of criminal law for civil disputes will not be entertained by courts.

27 August, 2025

Islamabad High Court puts on hold the deportation of 18 Afghan nationals

The Islamabad High Court (IHC) has granted temporary relief to 18 Afghan nationals facing deportation after their Proof of Registration (PoR) cards expired, according to a report by Khaama Press.

Chief Justice Sarfraz Dogar issued the directive in response to petitions filed by the individuals, who, as per Khaama Press, are reportedly linked to the family of the late Fazlur Rahman. Rahman had sought Pakistani citizenship in 2008 after completing the legal requirements. The ruling prevents their deportation until further orders, while notices have been issued to the Interior Ministry, the Immigration Department, and the Federal Investigation Agency.

The order comes at a time when Pakistan is moving ahead with its "Illegal Foreigners Repatriation Plan," under which Afghan refugees holding PoR cards that expired on June 30 were directed to leave voluntarily between August 4 and August 31. Deportations are set to begin from September 1, raising fears among refugees and rights groups.

Human rights bodies and the UNHCR have voiced concern that forced returns could violate the principle of non-refoulement. Rights advocates warn that such measures will deeply impact Afghan families who have lived in Pakistan for decades and built strong community ties. While the IHC's decision provides a reprieve to a small group, it underscores the broader uncertainty faced by over a million PoR cardholders who remain vulnerable to expulsion.

In parallel with the court proceedings, authorities have intensified enforcement. Police in Peshawar, particularly in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, have been conducting coordinated operations to identify undocumented Afghan migrants. According to Khaama Press, a significant number of migrants have been detained in recent days, with officials also claiming to have seized weapons and narcotics. The operations, carried out in areas including Kacha Garhi, Nasir Bagh, and Regi, are part of a wider crackdown on Afghans without valid documents.

Reports further indicate that Pakistan's campaign has accelerated in recent months, with arrests and deportations often involving house-to-house searches. The suspension of visa renewals for Afghan nationals for over a month has compounded the problem, leaving many previously legal residents undocumented and at risk of removal.

Adding to these measures, the federal government announced on August 13 the formation of a special committee comprising police and intelligence officials to track and repatriate Afghans holding PoR cards. This committee has been tasked with gathering and sharing data across agencies to facilitate enforcement actions.

Meanwhile, the UNHCR has expressed concern that Pakistan's stringent policies have left thousands of Afghans homeless, with many alleging threats, coercion, and mistreatment by law enforcement agencies. Rights advocates caution that the continuation of such actions risks deepening an already severe humanitarian crisis, forcing vulnerable Afghan families into greater displacement, loss of livelihood, and insecurity. 


06 August, 2025

Muslim Law Question Bank: Comprehensive Guide for Law Students & Judicial Aspirants

  1.  Who is a Muslim?
  2. What is Fiqh? Distinguish between Shariat and Fiqh?
  3. What are the main sources of Muslim Law? Describe the other sources of Muslim Law.
  4. Elaborate on the main schools of Muslim Law.
  5. What are the differences of opinion between the Sunni and Shia schools about various issues?
  6. Is codification an encroachment on religion? Examine some legislative enactments modifying Muslim Law. Also explain the applicability of the Shariat Act, 1937.
  7. What are the essential conditions for conversion to Islam?
  8. What is the effect of conversion to Islam with colourable, fraudulent or dishonest intention?
  9. How conversion to Islam can change the existing rights and status of convert? How far Muslim Law applied to the convert and his descendants on his or her conversion to Islam?
  10. Examine the meaning, objects and nature of Muslim Marriage (Nikah). Is Muslim marriage a civil contract? Distinguish between Hindu marriage and Muslim marriage.
  11. What are the essentials of a valid Muslim marriage? Describe the various formalities observed in a Muslim marriage.
  12. Elaborate on the following with reference to Muslim Law – (a)Prohibitive and Directory incapacity, (b) Kinds of marriages according to validity, (c) Consequences of void, irregular and valid marriage, (d) Distinction between void, irregular and valid marriages
  13. What do you understand by 'Muta' marriage? Describe its legal effects. Distinguish between Muta and valid (Sahih) marriage.
  14. What is Restitution of Conjugal Right? On what basis a wife can put forth a good defence for such right in a suit?
  15. What do you mean by Iddat? Explain its rights and duties when observing Iddat?
  16. Write short notes on the following: – (a) Khiyar-Ul-Bulugh (Option of Puberty) (b) Valid Retirement
  17. Who can be the guardians for marriage of minors according to Muslim Law? Describe the effect of a marriage fixed by non-authorised guardian of a minor on his behalf .
  18. Write an essay on Polygamy in Islam.
  19. What do you understand by the term ‘Maintenance’? Who are entitled to get maintenance according to Muslim Law?
  20. Define Dower. What is the importance and object of dower in Muslim Law?
  21. Discuss in detail the classification of Dower.
  22. Discuss the wife’s rights and remedies on non-payment of dower under Muslim Law.
  23. Explain the meaning and types of Divorce (Talaq) in Muslim Law. Also examine the different modes of Talaq.
  24. How Talaq (Divorce) takes place by the conduct of wife and husband? Distinguish between ‘Khula’ and ‘Mubarat’.
  25. Define ‘Ila’ and ‘Zihar’. What are the essential features of these two?
  26. What do you understand by Talaq through judicial process? Define ‘Lian’ and ‘Faskh’. What are the essentials of Faskh?
  27. What are the various grounds according to the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 on the basis of which a Muslim wife can apply for divorce?
  28. How is maternity and paternity of a child established under Muslim Law?
  29. Explain Legitimacy. What are the rules for presumption of legitimacy under Muslim Law? Is legitimacy contrary to any provision of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
  30. What is acknowledgment? Examine the conditions of a valid acknowledgment. Also explain the legal effects of acknowledgment and differentiate from adoption.
  31. What are the various kinds of guardianship according to Muslim Law?
  32. What do you understand by Guardianship of the person of a minor? Who can validly act as guardian for this purpose?
  33. Who is called ‘Bastard’? Describe the legal status of a bastard.
  34. What is the law regarding custody (Hizanat) of son and daughter? Who are entitled for custody of a minor according to Muslim Law?
  35. Examine the nature and object of will in Muslim Law. What are the essential requisites of a valid will?
  36. Define ‘Marz-ul-Maut’ (death illness). What is the crucial test of it, according to Muslim Law?
  37. Is a bequest made in ‘Marz-ul-Maut’ held valid in Muslim Law?
  38. What is the law relating to acknowledgment of debt on death-bed in Muslim Law?
  39. Define gift. What are the essentials of a valid gift in Muslim Law?
  40. In which cases of gift the delivery of possession is not necessary in Muslim Law?
  41. Write about void gifts in the Muslim Law.
  42. Can the gift of ‘Musha’ be made? What are the exceptions to this general rule?
  43. Define ‘Waqf’. What are its essential elements?
  44. How a valid Waqf can be created? When it is deemed complete? Can a Waqf be revoked even after its completion?
  45. Where are the valid objects for which a Waqf can be created according to Muslim Law?
  46. Define Mutawalli. How and by whom his appointment is made? Can a Mutawalli be removed from his post by wakif?
  47. What are the legal incidents of a valid Waqf?
  48. Define Private Waqf and Public Waqf. What is the difference between these two?
  49. What are those religious institutions for which waqf can be created? Describe in brief about each.
  50. What is pre-emption? When does the right to pre-emption arise in Muslim Law?
  51. Examine the persons who can pre-empt in Muslim Law. Also discuss the applications of law of pre-emption. What are the formalities for the exercise of the right of pre-emption? When the right of pre-emption is lost?
  52. Discuss in detail the Muslim Law of Succession and Administration.
  53. Give a brief introduction of Indian Succession Act, 1925 as amended by Act of 2002. Examine the main definitions and provisions of Domicile as given in the I.S.A., 1925.
  54. Examine the provisions of Chapter II of the I.S.A. 1925 regarding wills and codicils.
  55. Examine the provisions of Part VII (Secs. 192–210) of the I.S.A., 1925 regarding Protection of property of deceased.
  56. Examine the provisions of Part VIII (Secs. 211–216) of the I.S.A., 1925 regarding Representative Title to Property of Deceased on Succession.

14 April, 2025

Delhi Govt Assigns IIPA for Social Impact Study on Land Acquisition for Okhla Sewage Treatment Plant


New Delhi, April 4, 2025: 
The Land and Building Department of the Delhi Government has officially appointed the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) to conduct a Social Impact Assessment (SIA) for the proposed land acquisition in Village Jasola, New Delhi. The land is being acquired for the construction of a new Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) by the Delhi Jal Board (DJB).

According to the notification issued by the department, the IIPA will assess the social impact of acquiring Khasra No. 590/51/1 (measuring 02-08) and Khasra No. 592/55/2 (measuring 00-04). The assessment will be carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013.

The IIPA has been allotted a time frame of six months from the date of notification to complete the study and submit its report.

The notification was issued by the Land Acquisition Branch under the authority of the Lieutenant Governor of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.


LAND AND BUILDING DEPARTMENT 

(Land Acquisition Branch) 

NOTIFICATION 

Delhi, the 4th April, 2025 

F. No. 9(25)/L&B/LA/2023/129.—In the exercise of the powers conferred by the sub-rule (1) of rule 4 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (Social Impact Assessment and Consent) Rules, 2014, read with Govt. of India, Ministry of Home Affair's Notification No. S.O. 2740(E) dated 21st October 2014, read with S.O. 2004(E) dated 21/07/2015, the Lt Governor of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, is pleased to assign Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), Indraprastha Estate, Ring Road, New Delhi-110002 which was identified as Social Impact Assessment Unit vide notification No.F.8(2)/9/2015/L&B/LA/2373 dated 13.06.2017 to carry out Social Impact Assessment study and to prepare Social Impact Assessment report for acquisition of land which Delhi Jal Board (DJB), GNCT of Delhi intends to acquire land of Khasra No.590/51/1(02-08) & 592/55/2(00-04) of Village Jasola, New Delhi, for construction of New Sewage Treatment Plant, Okhla, New Delhi. 

Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), Indraprastha Estate, Ring Road, New Delhi-110002, (Social Impact Unit) shall carry out the social impact assessment study as per the provisions of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement, Act, 2013 within a period of 06 (Six) month from the date of issue of this notification. 

By Order and in the Name of Lieutenant Governor, 

National Capital Territory of Delhi, 

MANVINDER SINGH, Dy. Secy.

13 April, 2024

Burden of proving debt of benami companies of the notified person lies on the Custodian

Issues: There were questionable transactions between the appellants and respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8, the alleged benami companies of respondent No. 2 (notified party)?

Whether the Special Court committed manifest error in facts as well as in law in holding that the appellants herein were the garnishees of respondent No. 2?

Whether the conclusions and findings passed by the Special Court, that the appellant herein failed to prove the fact that amounts had been repaid to the benami companies of the notified person respondent No.2, can be sustained?

In twin appeals under Section 10 of Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to transactions in Securities) Act, 1992 (‘1992 Act’) challenging judgments passed by the Special Court on 11-03-2011, the Division Bench of Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha and Sandeep Mehta, JJ. clarified that the burden of proving debt of benami companies of the notified person lies on the Custodian as per Section 101 of the Evidence Act.


Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.
(Civil Appeal No(s). 4577 of 2011)
05 March 2024
[Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha and Sandeep Mehta,* JJ.]

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors. is a case involving questionable transactions between appellants and alleged benami companies of respondent No. 2. The Special Court was directed to pay the respective amounts due to the benami companies, but the appellants failed to prove that the amounts had been repaid. The claim was based on a communication from the Income Tax Department, which was not examined in evidence before the Special Court.

The appellants claimed they had borrowed the amounts from respondent Nos. 6, 7, and 8, but the books of accounts were not available due to lapse of time. It was neither a requirement in law nor could it be expected from them to retain the books of accounts after more than a decade of the alleged suspicious transactions.

The conclusions drawn and findings recorded in the impugned judgments passed by the Special Court that the appellants failed to prove the fact that the amounts had been repaid to the benami companies of the notified person-respondent No.2 do not stand to scrutiny and cannot be sustained as being contrary to facts and law. The case is based on the Special Court's judgment and order dated 11.03.2011, which was constituted under the provisions of the Special Court (Trial of Offences Relating to Transaction in Securities), Act, 1992.

The Supreme Court has decided on appeals under Section 10 of the Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to transactions in Securities) Act, 1992. The Act was established to address large-scale irregularities committed by share brokers in collusion with employees of Banks and Financial Institutions (FIs) in relation to transactions in Government/other securities, leading to the diversion of funds from banks/FIs to individual accounts of certain brokers. The Act provided a mechanism to ensure speedy recovery of illegally diverted funds, punish the guilty, restore public confidence in security transactions, and uphold the integrity and credibility of banks and FIs. The period of transactions in securities under the purview was from 1st April, 1991 to 6th June, 1992. A Special Court headed by a sitting Judge of the High Court was established for speedy trial of offences relating to transactions in securities and disposal of properties attached. The Act also provided for appointment of custodians to attach the property of offenders to prevent diversion.

The case revolves around the benami companies owned by respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth, who illegally parked tainted money from FFSL. The Custodian notified Sheth of the case and declared him insolvent in 2003. The Custodian sought information from the Income Tax Department about Sheth's assets, which revealed that he was the benami owner of the companies. The Special Court, in a miscellaneous application, observed that the companies were owned by Sheth. The Custodian filed several applications for recovery of the money, with the court directing the appellants to deposit the money with the Custodian within two months. The amounts were then paid to the Custodian, and the appellants would be discharged of their liabilities.

Suman L. Shah and Laxmichand Shah instituted Civil Appeal Nos. 4577 and 4583 of 2011, which were dismissed due to non-compliance with the order dated 13th May, 2011. The IAs seeking restoration of these appeals were accepted, subject to a deposit of Rs. 2.20 crores with the Officer on Special Duty, Special Court. The appeals were taken on board.

The appellants argued that the Special Court erred in holding them as garnishees of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth, citing questionable transactions between them and respondents Nos. 6, 7, and 8, the alleged benami companies of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth and judgment debtor of FFSL. They argued that the appellants had taken loans from these respondents in 1996-1997, long before respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth was notified under Section 3(2) of the Act of 1992.

The appellants also argued that the specific assertion made by the appellants in their deposition affidavits that the amounts borrowed were partly by cheque and partly by material supplied to these respondents could not be unsettled by the Custodian in cross-examination. They also argued that the appellants were not cross-examined either by respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth or on behalf of the benami companies, making it impossible to say with certainty that the amounts borrowed remained unpaid.

The appellants argued that since they were never notified under the Act of 1992, the burden of proof could not have been shifted upon them to disprove the case set up by the Custodian in the applications for recovery. They cited observations made by the Special Court in the impugned order, which stated that respondent No.8 was liable to pay Rs.25 lakh to respondent No.5 and Rs.25 lakh to respondent No.6.

The appellants argued that the impugned judgments do not stand to scrutiny as the onus of proof has been shifted on the appellants without any justification and contrary to the principles enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

The counsel for the respondents argued that the appellants' affidavits that the amount borrowed from respondent Nos. 6, 7, and 8 was returned by way of adjustment towards material supplied were discarded by the Special Court due to lack of tangible proof. They argued that the appellants were reputed businessmen and that accounts of business were not maintained to substantiate the plea of repayment. The court ruled in favor of the respondents, stating that the miscellaneous applications filed by the respondent-Custodian in 2008 sought to recover Rs.50 lakhs from appellant Suman L. Shah towards the dues of respondent Nos. The respondent-Custodian's assertion that the appellants were garnishees of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth through respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 is based on a communication dated 5th May, 1998 purportedly issued by the Income Tax Department. The court found no reference to the outstanding dues of respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 or that the appellants were its debtors. The court also found no witness from the Income Tax Department examined in evidence before the Special Court in miscellaneous applications for recovery.

The Special Court (Trial of Offences Relating to Transactions in Securities) Amendment Act, 1994 (24 of 1994) grants the Special Court jurisdiction, powers, and authority over matters related to property attached under sub-section (3) of section 3 and transactions in securities entered into after April 1, 1991, and June 6, 1992. Any suit, claim, or legal proceeding pending before the commencement of the Special Court shall stand transferred on its commencement, and the Special Court may proceed to deal with it in the same manner as a suit, claim, or legal proceeding.

The Special Court is not bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), but must be guided by natural justice principles. It has the same powers as a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908) while trying a suit, including summoning and enforcing attendance, requiring document discovery and production, receiving evidence on affidavits, requisitioning public records, issuing commissions for witness examination, reviewing decisions, dismissing cases for default, setting aside orders of dismissal, and any other matter prescribed by the Central Government.

The appellants argued that dues towards respondent Nos. 6, 7, and 8, generated from borrowings made in 1996-1997, stood repaid and closed because the amounts had been repaid by cheques and adjustments towards materials supplied. However, no witness from the Income Tax Department was examined in support of the recovery application, and the appellants' depositions that they had returned borrowed amounts were not supported by proper evidence.

The impugned judgments are quashed and set aside, and appeals are allowed. The amounts deposited by the appellants in furtherance of the order dated March 14, 2014, will be reimbursed to them immediately. Pending applications will be disposed of.

-----------------

10 April, 2024

After Supreme Court rap, Ramdev files unconditional apology

Facing the daunting prospect of contempt charges, yoga guru and entrepreneur Ramdev has filed a fresh affidavit in the Supreme Court furnishing an “unconditional and unqualified apology” for disobeying court orders that prohibited Patanjali Ayurved from running misleading advertisements on health cures. Ramdev has also promised he will not make any public statement that may undermine the court’s authority or question the efficacy of modern medicine.

Patanjali managing director Acharya Balkrishna, too, submitted a new affidavit tendering “unconditional apology,” with a promise that no statements or advertisements making controversial remarks about other forms of medicine or unscientific claims about Patanjali products will be made in the future.

“I hereby tender my unconditional apology in regard to the issue of advertisements... I sincerely regret this lapse and I wish to assure the hon’ble court that the same will not be repeated. I hereby tender an unconditional and unqualified apology for the breach of the statement recorded in para 3 of the order of this hon’ble court dated 21.11.2023,” stated the affidavits filed separately by Ramdev and Balkrishna on April 6.

“I further undertake and ensure that the said statement shall be complied with in letter and spirit and no such similar advertisements shall be used... I seek pardon for the aforesaid breach of the statement. I undertake to always uphold the majesty of law and majesty of justice,” they added.

The affidavits will be considered by the top court on Wednesday. The new affidavits have come days after Ramdev found himself embroiled in a legal tussle with the Supreme Court, facing the looming threat of contempt charges that the yoga guru seeks to wriggle out of with his new apology affidavit.

On April 2, a bench of justices Hima Kohli and Ahsanuddin Amanullah rejected Ramdev’s oral apology, calling it a mere “lip service” and commenting the apology affidavits sought to be placed before it by the yoga guru and Balkrishna had to be taken with a “sack full of salt”.

While the two remained physically present before the bench, the court took serious notice of their “absolute defiance” in not adhering to the commitment given before it in the petition filed by the Indian Medical Association, and gave them a final chance to produce fresh affidavits within a week.

“You have to abide by the undertaking given to court...but you have broken every barrier. Consequences will now flow. For you to go like a shot and hold a press conference in the teeth of the undertaking shows you are complicit, and you flouted our orders...You are bound by law like any other common man,” it told Ramdev on April 2.

In a series of hearings on the medical association’s petition complaining against Ramdev’s contentious comments about modern medicine, also popularly known as allopathy in India, and allegedly misleading advertisements about Patanjali products, the Supreme Court expressed grave concern and emphasised the need for responsible discourse, especially during a pandemic like Covid-19.

The court admonished Patanjali for spreading misinformation that could undermine public trust in the health care system and had recorded an undertaking by the company in November 2023 that it would stop running any misleading advertisements and issuing disparaging statements against modern or any other form of medicine.

However, the medical association came back to the bench with a video clip of a press conference held by Ramdev and Patanjali advertisements in national media merely a day after their undertaking in the court on November 21. Additionally, the association produced a series of advertisements branding Patanjali products as cure for several ailments, including hypertension and diabetes.

Irked by the contravention of its order and its own assurance, the court by its subsequent orders of February 27 and March 19 called Ramdev and Balkrishna in person, asking them to show cause why they should not be punished for contempt of court.

On April 2, the bench pulled up Ramdev for his comments against doctors and modern medicine. “The disparaging comment by the contemnors is most unfortunate,” the bench said. “They are mocking at people (doctors) to whom people look up to.”

Expecting responsible behaviour Ramdev, the court added: “We are taking this seriously as people of your stature command respect in society. You have done a good job for yoga. There is onerous responsibility expected from you than from the common public.”

On that day, the court also hinted that Ramdev will have to further explain for an incorrect fact in his March 30 application for exemption from personal appearance. The plea said that a copy of his overseas trip ticket was annexed, but the court noted that this was not possible because the ticket was issued on March 31.

In his latest affidavit, Ramdev said he had asked his travel agent to issue him the overseas trip ticket on March 30 itself and endorsed the application for exemption from personal appearance on that day itself. However, the ticket was issued only on March 31, and thus, the date of signing the application and the issuance of ticket were different.

“I tender and unconditional and unqualified apology for the aforesaid lapse and assure this hon’ble court to be more vigilant in future,” Ramdev’s affidavit stated.

On April 2, the Centre and the Uttarakhand state licencing authority were also questioned by the court for allegedly turning a blind eye to Patanjali’s violations. The court remarked that they were “complicit” and provided a “long rope” to the company by failing to file criminal charges against it for misrepresenting Coronil as a cure for Covid-19, which it isn’t, and for subsequent advertisements that were released in violation of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954.

The authorities are likely to be questioned on Wednesday when the bench takes up the matter.

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 10 April 2024)

09 April, 2024

'Must march with time': SC to govt on permanent stint for women in Coast Guard

 After granting permanent commission to women short service commission officers in Army, Navy and Air Force, Supreme Court on Monday decided to examine similar career opportunity to women short service agreement (SSA) officers in Indian Coast Guard while ordering interim reinstatement of a woman officer who was discharged in Dec 2023 after a 14-year stint.

A bench of Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud, and Justices J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra also ordered transfer of the petition by the woman SSA officer Priyanka Tyagi from Delhi high court, which had declined to grant interim relief to her while agreeing to examine the larger issue of PC for women in ICG, to Supreme Court saying it presented a national issue of gender equality.

In a virtual one-sided hearing of Tyagi's lawyer, senior advocate Archana Pathak Dave, the bench said when different branches of armed forces have granted PC to women short service commission officer, ICG cannot remain an outlier. "The petition needs to be heard given the broader constitutional mandate of Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)," it said.

When attorney general R Venkataramani and additional solicitor general Vikramjit Banerjee attempted to convey the factual aspects of the denial of permanent commission to Tyagi, the bench said, "Look at the resistance you have for absorbing women in permanent commission in ICG, which must march with time."

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 9 April 2024)

Voters' Right To Know About Candidates' Assets Not Absolute: Supreme Court

The Supreme Court today observed that voters do not have an "absolute right" to know about each and every asset of the candidates fighting elections.

"It is not an absolute right for any voter to delve deep into the private life of a candidate and each and every disclosure has to be of such nature which will impact the voting," the bench of Justices Aniruddha Bose and PV Sanjay Kumar said.

The top court said that the candidates have the right to privacy regarding matters which are irrelevant to the candidature for public office.

"It is not necessary that a candidate declare every item of moveable property that he or his dependent family members owns such as clothing, shoes, crockery, stationery, furniture etc., unless the same is of such value as to constitute a sizeable asset in itself or reflect upon his candidature in terms of his lifestyle and require to be disclosed", the top court observed.

The Supreme Court direction came as it upheld the election of Independent MLA Karikho Kri from Tezu in the 2019 Arunachal Pradesh Assembly election, setting aside the Gauhati High Court order that had declared his election as null and void.

The High Court had declared his election null and void while hearing a petition filed by Congress candidate Nuney Tayang, challenging the declaration of the 2019 Assembly election result.

Mr Tayang had alleged that Mr Kri made false declarations in his election nomination paper by not disclosing that he was in occupation of a government accommodation.

The petitioner also claimed that Mr Kri did not submit "No Dues Certificates" from the concerned department for the rent, electricity charges, water charges and telephone charges of the government accommodation.

(Courtesy:- ndtv.com, 9 April 2024)

06 April, 2024

Chandigarh mayoral poll returning officer tenders apology to Supreme Court

Facing the prospect of being prosecuted for unlawfully invalidating eight AAP votes to rig the elections in favour of BJP candidate in Chandigarh mayor election, the polling officer Anil Masih on Friday tendered "unconditional apology" to the Supreme Court and "surrendered to the court's magnanimity" while requesting for reprieve.

For Masih, senior advocate Mukul Rohatgi said the person has tendered unconditional apology and is surrendering to the court's magnanimity to seek reprieve from prosecution. But, this was
stoutly opposed by AAP's senior advocate A M Singhvi, who said it is easy to apologise after defiantly breaching the SC order and even justifying the action polluting free and fair elections.

The bench appeared to be in a mood to forgive, but with Singhvi insisting, it simply adjourned the hearing to next week. The SC on February 20 had declared AAP's Kuldeep Kumar elected as mayor of Chandigarh and struck down the election of BJP's Manoj Sonkar. For the unlawful invalidation of eight AAP votes, the SC has initiated prosecution proceedings against Masih. Masih also said he would withdraw the earlier affidavit which stated that he was reeling under depression and anxiety, and wherein he denied allegations of tampering with ballots.

The apex court had earlier issued a notice to Masih to show cause as to why proceedings should not be initiated against him under section 340 of the Code of Criminal Procedure for allegedly making false statement before the court.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 6 April 2024)

SC rejects plea seeking reburial of Pak sufi saint buried in Bangladesh

The Supreme Court on Friday rejected a plea seeking its intervention to transport the mortal remains of a Sufi saint — a Pakistani citizen who died in Bangladesh — for reburial to India where he was born.

A three-judge bench presided by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud said there was no constitutionally enforceable right to demand that the remains of a foreign citizen be brought to a country of which he or she is not a citizen, for the purpose of reburial.

“There are difficulties which lie in the path of entertaining a petition under Article 32 of this nature. He was admittedly a Pakistani citizen. There is no enforceable constitutional right which the petitioners can claim for the transport of the mortal remains from Dhaka, where he is buried, to India. Apart from the practical difficulties and issues such as exhumation, we are of the view that as a matter of first principle, it would not be either appropriate or lawful for this court to direct that the body of a person who admittedly was a citizen of a foreign state be brought for… ceremonies to India,” the bench, also comprising Justices J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, said in its order..

The counsel appearing for the petitioners told the bench that Hazrat Shah Muhammad Abdul Muqtadir Shah Masood Ahmad was born in Prayagraj, but migrated to Pakistan in 1992 and was conferred with Pakistani citizenship. He was elected Sajjada Nasheen of the Dargah Hazrat Mulla Syed Mohammad Shah in Prayagraj in February 2008. He executed a will on March 8, 2021 expressing A desire to be buried at the shrine. He died on January 21, 2022 during a visit to Dhaka and was buried there. The counsel added that the grave of the saint in Dhaka is not tended to.

She contended that if the Pakistan government is not raising any objection and if the government of Bangladesh allows the exhumation, the question is whether the Central government would permit the transportation of the body to India for the purpose of reburial.

The counsel said she had been writing to the government of India for two years but had not received any response and urged the SC to direct the authorities to furnish a reply to the representation.

“But there is no substance in it. How can anybody who is not a citizen of India either his family or followers of the group say that we want him to be buried here? That person is a foreign citizen,” the CJI reiterated adding the court would have still understood it if the deceased was an NRI.

(Courtesy:- The Indian Express, 6 April 2024)

Police tutoring witnesses shocking, says Supreme Court, asks Tamil Nadu DGP to take action against erring cops

Terming “teaching” of witnesses in a criminal case inside a police station as “shocking”, the Supreme Court on Friday directed the Tamil Nadu police chief to conduct an enquiry and initiate action against the erring officials.

A bench of Justices Abhay S Oka and Pankaj Mithal, which set aside the order of conviction and life sentence to two accused in a murder case, said it is surprising that both the trial court and the high court overlooked the critical aspect of tutoring of the witnesses in the case.

“One can reasonably imagine the effect of ‘teaching’ the witnesses inside a police station. This is a blatant act by the police to tutor the material prosecution witnesses. All of them were interested witnesses.

“Their evidence will have to be discarded as there is a distinct possibility that the said witnesses were tutored by the police on the earlier day. This kind of interference by the police with the judicial process, to say the least, is shocking,” the bench said in an order.

It added police cannot be allowed to tutor prosecution witnesses as it amounts to gross misuse of power by the police machinery.

“The Director General of Police of the state of Tamil Nadu shall cause an enquiry to be made into the conduct of the police officials of tutoring PW-1 to PW-5 (prosecution witnesses) at the concerned police station. Needless to add, appropriate action shall be initiated against the erring officials in accordance with the law,” the bench ordered.

It added the conduct of police officials became more serious as other eyewitnesses in the case, though available, were withheld.

“We are surprised that both the courts overlooked this critical aspect. It is pertinent to note that the defence of the accused, as can be seen from the line of cross-examination, was that they were not present at the place of the incident at the time of the incident,” it noted.

The bench said a prosecution witness has admitted that one of the two accused was working in another village called Tirrupur, and although independent witnesses in the case were available, they were not examined by the prosecution.

“Therefore, adverse inference must be drawn against the prosecution. Hence, there is a serious doubt created about the genuineness of the prosecution case. The benefit of this substantial doubt must be given to the appellants,” it said.

The bench noted that before the appellants were enlarged on bail by the top court, they had undergone incarceration for more than 10 years.

The two accused, Manikandan and Sivakumar, were alleged to have killed a person named Balamurugan on October 4, 2007.

Balamurugan was killed after a scuffle which arose over the delivery of idlis at his home by Manikandan.

(Courtesy:- The Indian Express, 5 April 2024)

Supreme Court stays order cancelling MBBS admission of panipuri seller’s son

In an interim relief, the Supreme Court Friday temporarily stayed an order that cancelled the admission of a panipuri seller’s son at a medical college following a dispute over his caste certificate. With the stay, the MBBS student can be readmitted to the course and can continue with his studies for the time being.

A division bench of Justices Hrishikesh Roy and Prashant Kumar Mishra granted interim relief to MBBS student Alpeshkumar Rathod and issued notice to the state and college authorities.

On March 26, a division bench of the Gujarat High Court had cast aspersions on the validity of the student’s Socially and Economically Backward Classes (SEBC) category certificate and had upheld the cancellation of admission by the Admission Committee for Professional Medical Educational Courses and the Government Medical College at Vadodara. The HC had then observed that an exception cannot be made out for a student and rule of law has to prevail.

Rathod, an Uttar Pradesh native but now with domicile status of Gujarat, was granted provisional admission subject to verification of documents. Claiming to be from ‘Teli’ sub-caste, which is classified as an SEBC category in Gujarat, the student had submitted a caste certificate dated August 20, 2018. However, following a scrutiny, the admission committee had cancelled the caste certificate terming it to be “incorrect” as he did not belong to the Teli caste of SEBC community in Gujarat, but rather to Teli — an OBC category in Uttar Pradesh. The cancellation was not challenged by Rathod.

With the caste certificate cancelled, his admission, too, was discontinued by the Government Medical College at Vadodara, affiliated to MSU, in September 2023.

The student then moved the High Court seeking his admission be reinstated by shifting his category from SEBC to general category as he had secured a good rank in the open category of the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (Undergraduate) and hence, was eligible to be admitted to a medical college.

A single judge order of the High Court had permitted the same by exercising extraordinary jurisdiction, on grounds of equity. The single judge’s order was then challenged by the admission committee of the college before a division bench of the HC. The High Court overturned the single judge’s order and upheld the cancellation.

(Courtesy:- The Indian Express, 5 April 2024)

Supreme Court grants bail to activist Shoma Kanti Sen in Elgar Parishad case

 Supreme Court on Friday granted bail to Nagpur University's former professor Shoma Sen in Elgar-Parishad case. A bench comprising Justices Aniruddha Bose and Augustine George Masih ordered her release on bail, subject to conditions deemed appropriate by the special court.

The top court allowed bail on certain conditions including she shall not leave state of Maharashtra without permission of the special court, surrender her passport, inform NIA about her residence, inform NIA officer about her mobile number and maintain that number remains active and charged.

The court mandated that the GPS on her mobile must remain active and her phone must be paired with that of the NIA officer to ascertain her location. "During this period, that is the period during which she remains on bail, the appellant shall keep the location status, that is GPS of her mobile phone, active 24 hours a day and her phone shall be paired with that of the investigating officer of the NIA to enable him at any given time to identify the appellant's exact location," the bench said.

Sen, a professor of English literature and a prominent advocate for women's rights, was detained in connection with a case concerning alleged inflammatory speeches delivered during the Elgar Parishad gathering at Shaniwarwada in Pune on December 31, 2017.

The police asserted that these speeches incited violence near the Koregaon-Bhima war memorial on the outskirts of the city the following day. The investigation into the matter, which has named over a dozen activists and scholars as suspects, was later transferred to the National Investigation Agency.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 5 April 2024)

Supreme Court stays Allahabad high court's decision to scrap UP Madrassa law

The Supreme Court on Friday stayed Allahabad high court's order striking down UP Board of Madrassa Education Act. The top court said the high court's judgement would affect the 17
lakh students, and it is of the view that the direction of relocation of students to other schools was not warranted.

The three-judge bench headed by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud issued notices to the Centre, Uttar Pradesh government and others on the pleas against the high court order. A bench of CJI D Y Chandrachud said though the state has a legitimate interest in ensuring quality education for students to enable them earn a degree for dignified pursuit of profession, adding that the high court was prima facie wrong in striking down a legislation which was only regulatory in nature.

"The object and purpose of Madrassa board is regulatory in nature and Allahabad high court is not prima facie correct that establishment of board will breach secularism. It (High Court judgement) conflates Madrassa education with the regulatory powers entrusted with the Board… The impugned judgment shall remain stayed," the top court said.

On March 22, the Allahabad high court had ruled that the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madrassa Education Act, 2004, is "unconstitutional" and infringes upon the principle of secularism. The court directed the state government to integrate current students into the formal education system.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 5 April 2024)

Supreme Court upholds Amravati MP Navneet Rana's caste certificate, sets aside Bombay HC verdict

 The Supreme Court on Wednesday upheld the caste certificate of BJP MP from Amravati, Navneet Rana, setting aside the previous verdict passed by the Bombay High Court.

The top court set aside the verdict of the Bombay High Court, which cancelled the caste certificate of Amravati MP and BJP leader Navneet Kaur Rana.

Allowing the plea of Rana, a bench comprising justices JK Maheshwari and Sanjay Karol said the high court should not have interfered with the report of the scrutiny committee on the issue of caste certificate of Rana.

Rana was accused of fabricating documents to obtain scheduled caste certificate to fight the 2019 Lok Sabha elections as an independent from reserved constituency of Amravati.

On June 8, 2021, the high court had said the 'mochi' caste certificate was obtained fraudulently using fabricated documents by Rana. It had also imposed a fine of ₹2 lakh on the Amravati MP, saying the records indicated that she belonged to the 'Sikh-Chamar' caste.

Previously, the Bombay High Court ruled that the terms ‘Chamar’ and ‘Sikh Chamar’ were not synonymous.

The High Court said in 2021, "In our view, the terms 'Chamar' and 'Sikh Chamar' are not synonymous. The terms 'Sikh Chamar' is also not synonymous with the term 'Mochi' prescribed under entry 11 to the Schedule II to the Constitution of India (Scheduled Caste), Order 1950."

Navneet Rana won from the reserved Amravati constituency in Maharashtra in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections, and recently joined the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). She will be contesting from the Amravati seat once again, and expressed confidence for the upcoming polls before filing her nomination.

Rana told ANI, “I have been working for the people of my region for many years. This is a big day for me and my constituency. This is the first time that voters in Amravati are getting a chance to vote for the nation-building, development and benefit of the nation.”

“The people of my constituency are happier than me. They are happy that for the first time, the lotus symbol will appear on the ballot box. The people will directly support and vote for Prime Minister Narendra Modi,” she added.

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 4 April 2024)

Delhi HC Declares Haldiram As Well Known Trademark

The Delhi High Court recently declared Haldirams as a well known trademark.

Bench of Justice Pratibha M Singh heard a suit which sought protection of its mark ‘Haldiram’, and a declaration that the said mark, along with its variations such as ‘HALDIRAM BHUJIAWALA’ is ‘well-known’ in terms of Section 2(1) (zg) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999. The instant suit also sought decree of permanent injunction, restraining the Defendants, from selling products under the impugned mark ‘HALDIRAM’/ ‘HALDIRAM BHUJIWALA’ or any other marks that are deceptively similar.

The plaintiff averred to not only have multiple registrations for ‘Haldiram's’ and its label in different classes within India, as detailed in part of their documents, but also boasts over 100 trade mark registrations internationally.

The Court held that the various registrations and a demonstrable long usage of the mark ‘Haldiram’, as also the goodwill vesting in the said mark, entitles the Plaintiff to a permanent injunction.

"Thus, the Defendants, and all others acting for and on their behalf are restrained from, in any manner, using the impugned marks ‘HALDIRAM BHUJIAWALA’ and/or ‘HALDIRAM’s’ or any other marks that are deceptively similar to the Plaintiff’s marks," the Court said.

The Court further stated that There is no doubt that the Haldiram's brand, with its origins deeply rooted in India's rich culinary tradition, has not only established a presence within the national market but has also extended its influence globally, transcending geographical, cultural, and national boundaries. 

"As evidenced by the documents placed on record, Plaintiff’s global footprint is indicative of the brand's robust spill-over reputation, where the authenticity of 'HALDIRAM'S' products resonate with a diverse audience, including in those regions where the brand does not have legal presence," the Court noted.

The Court granted decree of declaration declaring the mark 'HALDIRAM', as well as the Ovalshaped mark, as a ‘well-known’ mark in respect of food items as well as in respect of restaurants and eateries.

(Courtesy:- https://bwlegalworld.businessworld.in/, 3 April 2024)

Borrowing powers: No interim relief for Kerala govt in suit against Centre; SC refers case to Constitution bench

The Kerala Government on Monday failed to get any interim relief in its suit against the Centre over the limits on its borrowing powers, with a two-judge bench saying that it was prima facie “inclined to accept the Centre’s argument that where there is over utilisation of the borrowing limit in the previous year, to the extent of over borrowing, reductions are permissible in the subsequent year…”.

A bench of Justices Surya Kant and K V Viswanathan said the suit raises several important questions that require consideration by a five-judge Constitution bench, and directed that it be placed before the Chief Justice of India for this.

The state government had approached the Supreme Court against the Centre imposing a ceiling on the amount it can borrow, saying this had “brought the operation of” its “budget…to a grave crisis” and was violative of the principles of fiscal federalism.

The bench noted that since Article 293 of the Constitution (which deals with borrowing by the states) “has not so far been subjected to any authoritative interpretation by this court”, therefore the questions raised in the suit “are referred for answering by a five judge bench”.

The court said that for the purpose of interim relief, it had considered the triple test of prima facie case, balance of convenience and irreparable injury. Declining interim relief, the bench also said that the balance of convenience at this stage lies in favour of the Union of India.

The court said it cannot be oblivious to the fact that in view of the contention of the plaintiff state regarding pending financial dues, the defendant Union has already made an offer to allow additional borrowing.

The bench said that even if it assumes that the financial hardship of the state is partly a result of the Centre’s regulations, during the course of hearing the interim application, the consent has been given by the Centre to some extent so as to bailout the state from the current crisis and the state has secured substantial relief during the pendency of the interim application.

After the state government approached the Supreme Court against the borrowing ceiling, the Centre in its response blamed Kerala’s financial woes on its “poor public financial management”. It told the apex court that it had been allotted substantial resources from central taxes and duties, the highest share of post-devolution Revenue Deficit Grant, financial support over and above the recommendations of the Finance Commission, and substantial transfer of resources under centrally sponsored schemes.

(Courtesy:- The Indian Express, 2 April 2024)