30 August, 2026

Bombay High Court Evicts Son From Parents' Pune Flat: Senior Citizens' Rights Come First



A son said he had lived in the flat since the day he was born. The Bombay High Court has told him to hand it back to his parents.

What the court decided

On 21 August 2026, Justice Amit Borkar upheld an order evicting a son from a flat in Pune owned by his elderly parents.

The court's central line was simple. A senior citizen cannot be deprived of the use, occupation or beneficial enjoyment of their own property in a way that disturbs their normal life.

The son has been directed to hand over peaceful possession within four weeks.

The dispute

The son said he had lived at the address since birth. He married in 2012, and his wife moved in with him.

His argument was that the property had been built using income from ancestral property, making it joint family property. He also pointed out that his name appears on the building's occupancy certificate as an occupant.

His parents said the property belonged to them.

Relations broke down after the parents sold one property in September 2015 without consulting him. He said people acting for the buyer pressured him and his wife to leave. More property transactions followed. He filed a civil suit seeking partition and lodged a police complaint against his parents, his brother and others.

Meanwhile, the parents went to the Sub-Divisional Magistrate under Section 5 of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007.

How the case travelled

  • 8 February 2019: The SDM rejected the parents' application.
  • 27 June 2019: The Additional Collector, Pune allowed their appeal and set aside the SDM's order.
  • 21 August 2026: The Bombay High Court upheld the Additional Collector's order.

Three points that decide the case

1. You don't have to ask for money

The son argued the parents had not made a proper maintenance claim. The court disagreed.

Maintenance, it held, is not only about money. It includes the right to live peacefully in your own home and to enjoy the benefit of your own property. So an eviction plea by senior citizens can stand even without a specific demand for financial maintenance.

The parents' handwritten application mentioned rent, medicines, a loan and possession. Read as a whole, the court said, that is a maintenance grievance.

2. Living in separate flats makes no difference

The building has 15 flats. The son lived in one, his parents in another. His lawyers argued the Act should not apply because they were not sharing a home.

The court rejected this. The protection is not limited to cases where parent and child live under the same roof. The real question is whether the child's occupation stops the senior citizen from using their property or earning from it.

3. A pending claim is not a proven right

The son had a partition suit pending. The court said that a claim which has not yet been decided by a civil court cannot block his parents from seeking protection under the Act.

The parents are the recorded owners. Until a competent civil court declares otherwise, that stands.

What the court did not decide

Two things were expressly left open. The order does not decide the wife's independent rights, and it does not affect the son's pending partition suit.

The court also made clear it was not comparing who was richer. The question was only whether the parents needed protection over their residence, maintenance and property.

Why this matters

The 2007 Act was written for a common Indian situation: elderly parents with property on paper, but no control over it in practice.

This ruling widens its reach in two ways. Parents do not need to frame their plea as a request for money, and they do not need to be sharing a flat with the child. If a grown child's occupation is stopping them from living or earning normally, that is enough to bring the Act into play.

It is also a reminder that the Act offers a faster route than a civil suit. These proceedings go to the SDM and the Collector, not through years of ordinary litigation.

Quick answers

Which law was used?

Section 5 of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007.

Do parents have to ask for money to get an eviction order?

No. The court held that maintenance includes the right to peaceful residence and beneficial enjoyment of one's own property.

Does the Act apply if parent and child live in separate flats?

Yes. The court held the protection is not limited to shared residence. What matters is whether the child's occupation affects the senior citizen's use of or income from the property.

Does a pending partition suit stop an eviction?

No. Until a civil court declares the child's ownership right, an unproven claim cannot defeat the senior citizens' protection under the Act.

How long does the son have to vacate?

Four weeks from the order dated 21 August 2026.

Rejected for 1 cm: Gauhati High Court Orders Fresh Height Check for CAPF Candidate



One centimetre cost a young man a job. The Gauhati High Court has now asked the authorities to measure him again.

What happened

A candidate applied for the post of Constable (General Duty) in the Central Armed Police Forces and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles under the 2025 recruitment drive.
At the Physical Standard Test (PST), his height was recorded as 164 cm on 26 August 2025. The minimum required is 165 cm.

He was rejected. Just one centimetre short.

The appeal that went nowhere

The PST rejection slip itself told him he could appeal in writing on the same day. He did.

Then things dragged. He first went to the High Court, which told the authorities to decide his appeal quickly. That did not happen, so he filed a contempt petition. While that was pending, he was informed on 12 May that his appeal had been rejected.

So he went back to the High Court a second time.

What the court noticed

Justice Nelson Sailo heard the matter on 12 August 2026. The judge spotted a simple problem.

The order rejecting the appeal did not show that the candidate had been measured again. The authorities had simply gone back to the same 164 cm reading taken at the recruitment centre months earlier.

In other words, the appeal was decided using the very measurement the appeal was against.

The court directed the authorities to measure his height afresh and inform him of the result.

Why this matters

An appeal is supposed to be a real second look. If the appellate authority just repeats the first reading, the candidate gains nothing by appealing.

Height measurement also has a margin of error. Posture, footwear, the equipment used and even the time of day can shift a reading by a centimetre. That is exactly why a fresh check matters when the gap is this small.

For lakhs of young people preparing for police and paramilitary jobs, a centimetre is not a technicality. It is the whole career.

Similar cases in other courts

Calcutta High Court: On 4 August 2026, the court set aside a Review Medical Examination Board decision that declared a CAPF constable candidate unfit for a "winged scapula". Justice Reetobroto Kumar Mitra held that rejection cannot rest on clinical findings alone. It needs confirmatory tests and, where required, specialist opinion. A fresh medical examination was ordered.

Delhi High Court: On 1 July 2026, Justices Anil Kshetarpal and Amit Mahajan dismissed pleas by two serving personnel denied promotion to Assistant Commandant over tattoos on their saluting arm. The court said members of disciplined forces cannot claim they did not know the rules, and that removing a tattoo later does not cure ineligibility that existed at the time of applying.

Quick answers

What was the candidate's height?
164 cm, recorded on 26 August 2025. The minimum required was 165 cm.

What did the Gauhati High Court order?
It directed the authorities to measure his height again and communicate the result to him.

Did the court say he must be selected?
No. The order is about a fresh measurement, not guaranteed selection.

Which post was he applying for?
Constable (General Duty) in the CAPF and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles, under the 2025 recruitment process.

NLSIU Convocation Cancelled: Why Bengaluru's Top Law School Called Off Its Ceremony



India's top law school cancelled its convocation. Here is what happened, explained simply.

What happened

The National Law School of India University (NLSIU) in Bengaluru was going to hold its 34th convocation on 12 September 2026.

On 27 August, the university cancelled it.

The notice gave only two words as the reason: "unavoidable circumstances." No other explanation was given.

Students will still get their degrees. But instead of a ceremony, the degrees are being given "in absentia." Students can either collect their certificates from campus or get them by courier.

Why it was cancelled

The trouble did not start in Bengaluru. It started in Hyderabad.

Step 1: NALSAR students write a letter

In late July, about 70 final-year students at NALSAR University of Law in Hyderabad wrote to their college. They asked the college not to invite the Chief Justice of India, Surya Kant, as chief guest at their convocation.

Their reason: they were unhappy with things the CJI had reportedly said during court hearings about police action against student protesters in Delhi.

Step 2: The Bar Council reacts

On 13 August, the Bar Council of India (BCI) chairman Manan Kumar Mishra told all state bar councils not to register NALSAR's 2026 graduates.

This was serious. Without bar registration, a law graduate cannot practise as a lawyer.

The order was withdrawn within a few hours after strong criticism. Mishra later took it back completely.

Step 3: NLSIU students support NALSAR

On 15 August, NLSIU students issued a statement supporting the NALSAR students. It was signed by 702 people in total: 165 graduating students, 409 current students and 128 alumni.

They asked the BCI to apologise to NALSAR. They also said they did not want the BCI chairman or the CJI at their own convocation.

One important point here: the CJI is not just a guest at NLSIU. He is the Chancellor of the university. Giving degrees at convocation is part of his role.

Step 4: The CJI meets the students

On 17 August, students were told the CJI wanted to talk to them.

The meeting happened. Reports say he spent about 90 minutes listening to the students.

After the meeting, the students agreed to a compromise. They said the CJI could attend, as long as there was no protest during the ceremony. They were also told the BCI chairman would not come.

It looked like the problem was solved.

Step 5: A new condition, and then cancellation

Then students were reportedly asked to do one more thing: publicly invite the CJI in writing. They were also told this public invitation would be checked first, and it could not mention that the BCI chairman was staying away.

Many students felt this would look like taking back their support for NALSAR.

One graduating batch voted no.

Soon after, the cancellation notice came out.

NLSIU has not officially said this was the reason. But this is the order in which things happened.

The part people forget

For many students, this was not only about principles. It was about money and family.

Flights were booked. Parents and grandparents had made plans. For students who are the first in their family to reach a college like this, convocation means a lot to the people at home.

They still said no. That is worth thinking about, whatever side you agree with.

Why this story matters

  • Student speech had a cost. Students wrote a letter to their own college, and their careers were briefly put at risk.
  • A regulator's power is now in question. Students argued the BCI went beyond what the Advocates Act, 1961 allows.
  • The university stayed silent. A college that teaches constitutional law gave a two-word explanation to its own students.
  • It is not a simple villain story. The CJI did meet the students and listen for 90 minutes. The BCI did take back its order. The breakdown came later, over a different demand.

Quick answers

Why was the NLSIU convocation cancelled?

The university said only "unavoidable circumstances." Reports say it followed a disagreement over a demand that students publicly invite the CJI. One batch voted against it.

Will students still get their degrees?

Yes. Degrees are being given in absentia. Certificates can be collected from campus or sent by courier.

Why did students object to the CJI?

It began at NALSAR Hyderabad, over remarks reportedly made by the CJI in hearings about police action against student protesters in Delhi. NLSIU students gave the same reason and supported NALSAR.

What did the Bar Council of India do?

On 13 August, it told state bar councils not to register NALSAR's 2026 graduates. The order was reversed within hours and later withdrawn completely.

Is the CJI connected to NLSIU?

Yes. The Chief Justice of India is the Chancellor of NLSIU and gives out degrees at the annual convocation.

Where things stand now

No new date has been announced. Certificates will be sent out instead. The BCI order is withdrawn. And nobody has said publicly what the "unavoidable circumstances" actually were.

A convocation is just a certificate handover on paper. Everything else about it is symbolic. But symbols matter, and this one will be remembered much longer than the ceremony would have been.

25 July, 2026

Representative Suits under the Civil Procedure Code: Practice 120 MCQs for Judicial Services & Law Exams

 If you are preparing for the Judicial Services Examination, APO, JLO, Law Officer, or any other competitive law examination, mastering the Representative Suit under the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) is essential. Questions from this topic are frequently asked in Judicial Services examinations, making it an important area for every law student and judiciary aspirant.

To help you strengthen your preparation, we have compiled a comprehensive Representative Suit MCQ Practice Series consisting of 120 carefully designed multiple-choice questions. The questions are divided into four online practice tests, with 30 MCQs in each test, enabling you to practice systematically and evaluate your understanding.

Why Practice Representative Suit MCQs?

Representative Suit, governed by Order I Rule 8 of the Civil Procedure Code, is a concept that every judiciary aspirant must understand thoroughly. Examiners often test not only the statutory provisions but also procedural requirements and practical applications.

Regular practice will help you:

  • Build a strong conceptual understanding of Representative Suits.
  • Revise the provisions of Order I Rule 8 CPC effectively.
  • Improve speed and accuracy while solving objective questions.
  • Identify important and frequently tested concepts.
  • Gain confidence before the Judicial Services Examination.

Representative Suit MCQ Practice Tests

Test 1 – Representative Suit (30 MCQs)

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a64af0fe9cf0ac5a7ec950f&defaultLanguage=en-US

Test 2 – Representative Suit (30 MCQs)

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Test 3 – Representative Suit (30 MCQs)

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Test 4 – Representative Suit (30 MCQs)

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What Makes These Tests Valuable?

Each question has been prepared with the objective of helping students understand the legal principles and procedural aspects relating to Representative Suits. The practice tests are suitable for:

  • Judicial Services Examination aspirants
  • APO and JLO examination candidates
  • LL.B. and LL.M. students
  • AIBE aspirants
  • Law graduates preparing for competitive examinations

The MCQs cover important areas such as:

  • Meaning and nature of Representative Suits
  • Conditions for filing a Representative Suit
  • Permission of the Court
  • Public notice requirements
  • Rights and liabilities of parties
  • Binding effect of decrees
  • Withdrawal and compromise of Representative Suits
  • Relevant judicial principles and procedural requirements

Challenge Yourself with 120 MCQs

Completing all four practice tests will expose you to 120 carefully curated questions on Representative Suits. This extensive practice will help you revise the topic comprehensively, improve your exam temperament, and identify areas that require further study.

Success in Judicial Services examinations depends on consistent practice, conceptual clarity, and regular revision. These online tests are designed to help you achieve all three.

Start your practice today and take another confident step toward your dream of joining the Judicial Services.

16 July, 2026

AIBE Previous Year Question Papers (2011–2026): A Free Practice Archive Every Law Graduate Should Bookmark

If you're staring down the All India Bar Examination and wondering where to even begin, here's a piece of advice that's stood the test of time: stop hunting for new material and start working through old papers. Nothing prepares you for AIBE quite like sitting with the actual questions that have appeared over the years.

That's exactly why I've put together this archive: every AIBE paper from the very first exam in 2011 right up to AIBE-XXI in 2026, all converted into free online practice tests you can attempt in a proper timed setting.

Why Bother with Old Papers?

It's tempting to think past papers are outdated the moment a new syllabus circular comes out. In my experience, that's rarely true. The AIBE tends to repeat itself more than most candidates expect, with the same statutes, the same procedural questions, and the same conceptual traps dressed up slightly differently each year.

Working through these papers does a few things for you. It shows you what the exam actually looks like, rather than what you imagine it looks like from a coaching class syllabus. It gets you used to answering under time pressure, which matters more than people admit, since a lot of AIBE candidates know the law perfectly well and still run out of time. And over enough papers, patterns start to emerge: certain acts, certain topics, certain kinds of questions that show up again and again. Once you start noticing those, your revision gets a lot more targeted.

The Full Archive: AIBE-I (2011) to AIBE-XXI (2026)

1.      AIBE-2026,XXI,2026 held on 7 June, 2026 SET CODE-A

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a586002dc76d637056643b0&defaultLanguage=en-US

2.      AIBE-2025-XX, 2025 held on 30 November 2025 SET CODE A

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585fe3a22d043314c9f43e&defaultLanguage=en-US

3.      All India Bar Examination-XIX, 2024 held on 22nd December 2024 SET CODE A

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585fc8401aa126e5420d56&defaultLanguage=en-US

4.      All India Bar Examination-XVIII,2023 held on 10 December 2023 SET CODE-D

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585fb0e89d8e549259782f&defaultLanguage=en-US

5.      All India Bar Examination-XVII, 2023 held on 5th February 2023

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6.      All India Bar Examination-XVI, 2021 held on 31st October 2021

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f7d035912621f44d011&defaultLanguage=en-US

7.      All India Bar Examination-XV, 2021 held on 24th January, 2021

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f631034e869ee99f3a6&defaultLanguage=en-US

8.      All India Bar Examination-XIV, 2019 held on 15th September 2019

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f48562ab125ca8f6f07&defaultLanguage=en-US

9.      All India Bar Examination-XIII, 2018 held on 23rd December 2018

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585f2cb5d37835e9409787&defaultLanguage=en-US

10.  All India Bar Examination-XII, 2018 held on 10th June, 2018

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11.  All India Bar Examination - XI, 2017 held on 3rd December 2017

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12.  All India Bar Examination- X, 2017 held on 26th March, 2017

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13.  All India Bar Examination - IX, 2026 held on 6th March 2016

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14.  All India Bar Examination-VIII , 2015 held on 24th May, 2015

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585e8c3829bb46ed47c643&defaultLanguage=en-US

15.  All India Bar Examination-VII , 2014 held on 7th September, 2014

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585e61339fc3276066c482&defaultLanguage=en-US

16.  All India Bar Examination-V , 2013 held on 25th August, 2013

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585e428d14a52a02ee265b&defaultLanguage=en-US

17.  All India Bar Examination-IV , 2012 held on 9th December, 2012

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18.  All India Bar Examination-III , 2012 held on 8th January, 2012

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585dfc5cea22f291d5b8e0&defaultLanguage=en-US

19.  All India Bar Examination , 2011 held on 24th July 2011

https://online-test.classplusapp.com/?testId=6a585c5d445277362553ec97&defaultLanguage=en-US

 

 

Every paper is set up as a free online test, so click the link and you'll go straight into a simulated exam environment.

A Few Thoughts on How to Actually Use These

Just clicking through a paper isn't enough on its own. How you use it matters as much as how many you attempt.

Try to sit for each paper under real time constraints rather than working through it leisurely with your notes open. It feels harder, but that's the point. It's the only way to know if you're actually exam-ready. And don't stop at your score. Go back through every question you got wrong (and honestly, a few you got right by guessing) and figure out why the correct answer is correct. That's where the real learning happens.

It also helps to keep a running note of topics that keep showing up, such as certain sections of the CrPC, certain Constitutional provisions, and professional ethics questions, so your last-minute revision has some direction instead of being a blind sweep through the whole syllabus. And try to make this a regular habit rather than a last-week cram. Even one paper a week in the months before your exam adds up to a lot of exposure by the time you sit for AIBE.

Prefer Studying on Your Phone?

These papers are also available through our mobile app if you'd rather practice on the go. If you want access, just write to me at miglani786@gmail.com and our team will get back to you.

A Closing Note

There's no shortcut to clearing AIBE, but there is a shortcut to preparing smart, and it's simply doing enough of these papers, properly, that the exam stops feeling unfamiliar. Whether this is your first attempt or your third, I hope this archive saves you some time and gives your preparation a bit more structure.

Wishing you all the best for AIBE.

By Dr. Deepak Miglani

#AIBE #AllIndiaBarExamination #BarCouncilOfIndia #AIBEPreparation #LawExam #LegalEducation #AIBEMockTest #LawGraduates #BarExamIndia #LegalCareer #AIBE2026 #StudyLaw #LawStudents #JudiciaryExam #AdvocateLife

 

26 September, 2025

Cheating and Criminal Breach of Trust Cannot Co-Exist on the Same Allegations: Supreme Court



Introduction

In a landmark judgment delivered on 24 September 2025, the Supreme Court of India has clarified that the offences of cheating (Section 420 IPC / Section 318 BNS) and criminal breach of trust (Section 406 IPC / Section 316 BNS) cannot be alleged simultaneously on the basis of the same set of facts. The Court emphasized that both offences are “antithetical” in nature, and therefore cannot co-exist.

The judgment was delivered by a Bench comprising Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice R. Mahadevan in the case Arshad Neyaz Khan vs State of Jharkhand & Another (Criminal Appeal No. ___ of 2025; arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 3606 of 2024).

Background of the Case

The dispute arose from an agreement for sale executed in 2013. The appellant, Arshad Neyaz Khan, agreed to sell certain immovable properties to the complainant, Md. Mustafa, for a total consideration of ₹43,00,000. An advance of ₹20,00,000 was paid, but the sale deed was never executed, nor was the money refunded.

After nearly eight years, in 2021, the complainant filed a case alleging offences under Sections 406 (criminal breach of trust), 420 (cheating), and 120B (criminal conspiracy) IPC. An FIR was also registered. While the High Court refused to quash the proceedings, the appellant approached the Supreme Court.



Supreme Court’s Observations

The Supreme Court undertook a detailed analysis of the provisions and judicial precedents.

1.      On Cheating (Section 420 IPC):

o   For cheating, a fraudulent or dishonest intention at the inception of the transaction is essential.

o   Mere failure to keep a promise later cannot amount to cheating.

o   In the present case, there was no material to suggest that the appellant had dishonest intention from the beginning.

2.      On Criminal Breach of Trust (Section 406 IPC):

o   This offence requires lawful entrustment of property and subsequent dishonest misappropriation.

o   The complainant failed to prove how the property was entrusted or misappropriated.

o   Every breach of contract cannot be converted into a criminal breach of trust unless dishonest intention is evident.

3.      Antithetical Nature of the Offences:

o   In Delhi Race Club (1940) Ltd. vs. State of UP (2024), the Court had earlier clarified the distinction.

o   Cheating involves deception at inception, whereas breach of trust involves lawful entrustment followed by dishonesty.

o   Both cannot exist together in the same factual scenario.

4.      Delay and Mala Fide Allegations:

o   The complaint was filed after eight years, raising doubts on its bona fides.

o   The Court cautioned against misuse of criminal proceedings for settling civil disputes.

By quashing the complaint and FIR, the Supreme Court reiterated the principle that criminal law should not be misused as a tool for harassment or to pressurize parties in civil disputes. This judgment provides much-needed clarity to distinguish between cheating and criminal breach of trust, strengthening the jurisprudence on criminal liability in contractual matters.

The decision is a guiding precedent for lawyers, law students, and judiciary aspirants, reaffirming the Court’s stand against conflating distinct offences in criminal law.

Key Takeaways

  • Cheating requires proof of dishonest intention from the beginning of the transaction.
  • Criminal Breach of Trust requires proof of entrustment and subsequent misappropriation.
  • Both offences are mutually exclusive and cannot be alleged together on the same facts.
Delay in filing complaints and misuse of criminal law for civil disputes will not be entertained by courts.

27 August, 2025

Islamabad High Court puts on hold the deportation of 18 Afghan nationals

The Islamabad High Court (IHC) has granted temporary relief to 18 Afghan nationals facing deportation after their Proof of Registration (PoR) cards expired, according to a report by Khaama Press.

Chief Justice Sarfraz Dogar issued the directive in response to petitions filed by the individuals, who, as per Khaama Press, are reportedly linked to the family of the late Fazlur Rahman. Rahman had sought Pakistani citizenship in 2008 after completing the legal requirements. The ruling prevents their deportation until further orders, while notices have been issued to the Interior Ministry, the Immigration Department, and the Federal Investigation Agency.

The order comes at a time when Pakistan is moving ahead with its "Illegal Foreigners Repatriation Plan," under which Afghan refugees holding PoR cards that expired on June 30 were directed to leave voluntarily between August 4 and August 31. Deportations are set to begin from September 1, raising fears among refugees and rights groups.

Human rights bodies and the UNHCR have voiced concern that forced returns could violate the principle of non-refoulement. Rights advocates warn that such measures will deeply impact Afghan families who have lived in Pakistan for decades and built strong community ties. While the IHC's decision provides a reprieve to a small group, it underscores the broader uncertainty faced by over a million PoR cardholders who remain vulnerable to expulsion.

In parallel with the court proceedings, authorities have intensified enforcement. Police in Peshawar, particularly in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, have been conducting coordinated operations to identify undocumented Afghan migrants. According to Khaama Press, a significant number of migrants have been detained in recent days, with officials also claiming to have seized weapons and narcotics. The operations, carried out in areas including Kacha Garhi, Nasir Bagh, and Regi, are part of a wider crackdown on Afghans without valid documents.

Reports further indicate that Pakistan's campaign has accelerated in recent months, with arrests and deportations often involving house-to-house searches. The suspension of visa renewals for Afghan nationals for over a month has compounded the problem, leaving many previously legal residents undocumented and at risk of removal.

Adding to these measures, the federal government announced on August 13 the formation of a special committee comprising police and intelligence officials to track and repatriate Afghans holding PoR cards. This committee has been tasked with gathering and sharing data across agencies to facilitate enforcement actions.

Meanwhile, the UNHCR has expressed concern that Pakistan's stringent policies have left thousands of Afghans homeless, with many alleging threats, coercion, and mistreatment by law enforcement agencies. Rights advocates caution that the continuation of such actions risks deepening an already severe humanitarian crisis, forcing vulnerable Afghan families into greater displacement, loss of livelihood, and insecurity. 


06 August, 2025

Muslim Law Question Bank: Comprehensive Guide for Law Students & Judicial Aspirants

  1.  Who is a Muslim?
  2. What is Fiqh? Distinguish between Shariat and Fiqh?
  3. What are the main sources of Muslim Law? Describe the other sources of Muslim Law.
  4. Elaborate on the main schools of Muslim Law.
  5. What are the differences of opinion between the Sunni and Shia schools about various issues?
  6. Is codification an encroachment on religion? Examine some legislative enactments modifying Muslim Law. Also explain the applicability of the Shariat Act, 1937.
  7. What are the essential conditions for conversion to Islam?
  8. What is the effect of conversion to Islam with colourable, fraudulent or dishonest intention?
  9. How conversion to Islam can change the existing rights and status of convert? How far Muslim Law applied to the convert and his descendants on his or her conversion to Islam?
  10. Examine the meaning, objects and nature of Muslim Marriage (Nikah). Is Muslim marriage a civil contract? Distinguish between Hindu marriage and Muslim marriage.
  11. What are the essentials of a valid Muslim marriage? Describe the various formalities observed in a Muslim marriage.
  12. Elaborate on the following with reference to Muslim Law – (a)Prohibitive and Directory incapacity, (b) Kinds of marriages according to validity, (c) Consequences of void, irregular and valid marriage, (d) Distinction between void, irregular and valid marriages
  13. What do you understand by 'Muta' marriage? Describe its legal effects. Distinguish between Muta and valid (Sahih) marriage.
  14. What is Restitution of Conjugal Right? On what basis a wife can put forth a good defence for such right in a suit?
  15. What do you mean by Iddat? Explain its rights and duties when observing Iddat?
  16. Write short notes on the following: – (a) Khiyar-Ul-Bulugh (Option of Puberty) (b) Valid Retirement
  17. Who can be the guardians for marriage of minors according to Muslim Law? Describe the effect of a marriage fixed by non-authorised guardian of a minor on his behalf .
  18. Write an essay on Polygamy in Islam.
  19. What do you understand by the term ‘Maintenance’? Who are entitled to get maintenance according to Muslim Law?
  20. Define Dower. What is the importance and object of dower in Muslim Law?
  21. Discuss in detail the classification of Dower.
  22. Discuss the wife’s rights and remedies on non-payment of dower under Muslim Law.
  23. Explain the meaning and types of Divorce (Talaq) in Muslim Law. Also examine the different modes of Talaq.
  24. How Talaq (Divorce) takes place by the conduct of wife and husband? Distinguish between ‘Khula’ and ‘Mubarat’.
  25. Define ‘Ila’ and ‘Zihar’. What are the essential features of these two?
  26. What do you understand by Talaq through judicial process? Define ‘Lian’ and ‘Faskh’. What are the essentials of Faskh?
  27. What are the various grounds according to the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 on the basis of which a Muslim wife can apply for divorce?
  28. How is maternity and paternity of a child established under Muslim Law?
  29. Explain Legitimacy. What are the rules for presumption of legitimacy under Muslim Law? Is legitimacy contrary to any provision of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
  30. What is acknowledgment? Examine the conditions of a valid acknowledgment. Also explain the legal effects of acknowledgment and differentiate from adoption.
  31. What are the various kinds of guardianship according to Muslim Law?
  32. What do you understand by Guardianship of the person of a minor? Who can validly act as guardian for this purpose?
  33. Who is called ‘Bastard’? Describe the legal status of a bastard.
  34. What is the law regarding custody (Hizanat) of son and daughter? Who are entitled for custody of a minor according to Muslim Law?
  35. Examine the nature and object of will in Muslim Law. What are the essential requisites of a valid will?
  36. Define ‘Marz-ul-Maut’ (death illness). What is the crucial test of it, according to Muslim Law?
  37. Is a bequest made in ‘Marz-ul-Maut’ held valid in Muslim Law?
  38. What is the law relating to acknowledgment of debt on death-bed in Muslim Law?
  39. Define gift. What are the essentials of a valid gift in Muslim Law?
  40. In which cases of gift the delivery of possession is not necessary in Muslim Law?
  41. Write about void gifts in the Muslim Law.
  42. Can the gift of ‘Musha’ be made? What are the exceptions to this general rule?
  43. Define ‘Waqf’. What are its essential elements?
  44. How a valid Waqf can be created? When it is deemed complete? Can a Waqf be revoked even after its completion?
  45. Where are the valid objects for which a Waqf can be created according to Muslim Law?
  46. Define Mutawalli. How and by whom his appointment is made? Can a Mutawalli be removed from his post by wakif?
  47. What are the legal incidents of a valid Waqf?
  48. Define Private Waqf and Public Waqf. What is the difference between these two?
  49. What are those religious institutions for which waqf can be created? Describe in brief about each.
  50. What is pre-emption? When does the right to pre-emption arise in Muslim Law?
  51. Examine the persons who can pre-empt in Muslim Law. Also discuss the applications of law of pre-emption. What are the formalities for the exercise of the right of pre-emption? When the right of pre-emption is lost?
  52. Discuss in detail the Muslim Law of Succession and Administration.
  53. Give a brief introduction of Indian Succession Act, 1925 as amended by Act of 2002. Examine the main definitions and provisions of Domicile as given in the I.S.A., 1925.
  54. Examine the provisions of Chapter II of the I.S.A. 1925 regarding wills and codicils.
  55. Examine the provisions of Part VII (Secs. 192–210) of the I.S.A., 1925 regarding Protection of property of deceased.
  56. Examine the provisions of Part VIII (Secs. 211–216) of the I.S.A., 1925 regarding Representative Title to Property of Deceased on Succession.

14 April, 2025

Delhi Govt Assigns IIPA for Social Impact Study on Land Acquisition for Okhla Sewage Treatment Plant


New Delhi, April 4, 2025: 
The Land and Building Department of the Delhi Government has officially appointed the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) to conduct a Social Impact Assessment (SIA) for the proposed land acquisition in Village Jasola, New Delhi. The land is being acquired for the construction of a new Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) by the Delhi Jal Board (DJB).

According to the notification issued by the department, the IIPA will assess the social impact of acquiring Khasra No. 590/51/1 (measuring 02-08) and Khasra No. 592/55/2 (measuring 00-04). The assessment will be carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013.

The IIPA has been allotted a time frame of six months from the date of notification to complete the study and submit its report.

The notification was issued by the Land Acquisition Branch under the authority of the Lieutenant Governor of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.


LAND AND BUILDING DEPARTMENT 

(Land Acquisition Branch) 

NOTIFICATION 

Delhi, the 4th April, 2025 

F. No. 9(25)/L&B/LA/2023/129.—In the exercise of the powers conferred by the sub-rule (1) of rule 4 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (Social Impact Assessment and Consent) Rules, 2014, read with Govt. of India, Ministry of Home Affair's Notification No. S.O. 2740(E) dated 21st October 2014, read with S.O. 2004(E) dated 21/07/2015, the Lt Governor of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, is pleased to assign Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), Indraprastha Estate, Ring Road, New Delhi-110002 which was identified as Social Impact Assessment Unit vide notification No.F.8(2)/9/2015/L&B/LA/2373 dated 13.06.2017 to carry out Social Impact Assessment study and to prepare Social Impact Assessment report for acquisition of land which Delhi Jal Board (DJB), GNCT of Delhi intends to acquire land of Khasra No.590/51/1(02-08) & 592/55/2(00-04) of Village Jasola, New Delhi, for construction of New Sewage Treatment Plant, Okhla, New Delhi. 

Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), Indraprastha Estate, Ring Road, New Delhi-110002, (Social Impact Unit) shall carry out the social impact assessment study as per the provisions of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement, Act, 2013 within a period of 06 (Six) month from the date of issue of this notification. 

By Order and in the Name of Lieutenant Governor, 

National Capital Territory of Delhi, 

MANVINDER SINGH, Dy. Secy.

13 April, 2024

Burden of proving debt of benami companies of the notified person lies on the Custodian

Issues: There were questionable transactions between the appellants and respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8, the alleged benami companies of respondent No. 2 (notified party)?

Whether the Special Court committed manifest error in facts as well as in law in holding that the appellants herein were the garnishees of respondent No. 2?

Whether the conclusions and findings passed by the Special Court, that the appellant herein failed to prove the fact that amounts had been repaid to the benami companies of the notified person respondent No.2, can be sustained?

In twin appeals under Section 10 of Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to transactions in Securities) Act, 1992 (‘1992 Act’) challenging judgments passed by the Special Court on 11-03-2011, the Division Bench of Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha and Sandeep Mehta, JJ. clarified that the burden of proving debt of benami companies of the notified person lies on the Custodian as per Section 101 of the Evidence Act.


Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors.
(Civil Appeal No(s). 4577 of 2011)
05 March 2024
[Pamidighantam Sri Narasimha and Sandeep Mehta,* JJ.]

Suman L. Shah v. The Custodian & Ors. is a case involving questionable transactions between appellants and alleged benami companies of respondent No. 2. The Special Court was directed to pay the respective amounts due to the benami companies, but the appellants failed to prove that the amounts had been repaid. The claim was based on a communication from the Income Tax Department, which was not examined in evidence before the Special Court.

The appellants claimed they had borrowed the amounts from respondent Nos. 6, 7, and 8, but the books of accounts were not available due to lapse of time. It was neither a requirement in law nor could it be expected from them to retain the books of accounts after more than a decade of the alleged suspicious transactions.

The conclusions drawn and findings recorded in the impugned judgments passed by the Special Court that the appellants failed to prove the fact that the amounts had been repaid to the benami companies of the notified person-respondent No.2 do not stand to scrutiny and cannot be sustained as being contrary to facts and law. The case is based on the Special Court's judgment and order dated 11.03.2011, which was constituted under the provisions of the Special Court (Trial of Offences Relating to Transaction in Securities), Act, 1992.

The Supreme Court has decided on appeals under Section 10 of the Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to transactions in Securities) Act, 1992. The Act was established to address large-scale irregularities committed by share brokers in collusion with employees of Banks and Financial Institutions (FIs) in relation to transactions in Government/other securities, leading to the diversion of funds from banks/FIs to individual accounts of certain brokers. The Act provided a mechanism to ensure speedy recovery of illegally diverted funds, punish the guilty, restore public confidence in security transactions, and uphold the integrity and credibility of banks and FIs. The period of transactions in securities under the purview was from 1st April, 1991 to 6th June, 1992. A Special Court headed by a sitting Judge of the High Court was established for speedy trial of offences relating to transactions in securities and disposal of properties attached. The Act also provided for appointment of custodians to attach the property of offenders to prevent diversion.

The case revolves around the benami companies owned by respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth, who illegally parked tainted money from FFSL. The Custodian notified Sheth of the case and declared him insolvent in 2003. The Custodian sought information from the Income Tax Department about Sheth's assets, which revealed that he was the benami owner of the companies. The Special Court, in a miscellaneous application, observed that the companies were owned by Sheth. The Custodian filed several applications for recovery of the money, with the court directing the appellants to deposit the money with the Custodian within two months. The amounts were then paid to the Custodian, and the appellants would be discharged of their liabilities.

Suman L. Shah and Laxmichand Shah instituted Civil Appeal Nos. 4577 and 4583 of 2011, which were dismissed due to non-compliance with the order dated 13th May, 2011. The IAs seeking restoration of these appeals were accepted, subject to a deposit of Rs. 2.20 crores with the Officer on Special Duty, Special Court. The appeals were taken on board.

The appellants argued that the Special Court erred in holding them as garnishees of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth, citing questionable transactions between them and respondents Nos. 6, 7, and 8, the alleged benami companies of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth and judgment debtor of FFSL. They argued that the appellants had taken loans from these respondents in 1996-1997, long before respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth was notified under Section 3(2) of the Act of 1992.

The appellants also argued that the specific assertion made by the appellants in their deposition affidavits that the amounts borrowed were partly by cheque and partly by material supplied to these respondents could not be unsettled by the Custodian in cross-examination. They also argued that the appellants were not cross-examined either by respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth or on behalf of the benami companies, making it impossible to say with certainty that the amounts borrowed remained unpaid.

The appellants argued that since they were never notified under the Act of 1992, the burden of proof could not have been shifted upon them to disprove the case set up by the Custodian in the applications for recovery. They cited observations made by the Special Court in the impugned order, which stated that respondent No.8 was liable to pay Rs.25 lakh to respondent No.5 and Rs.25 lakh to respondent No.6.

The appellants argued that the impugned judgments do not stand to scrutiny as the onus of proof has been shifted on the appellants without any justification and contrary to the principles enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

The counsel for the respondents argued that the appellants' affidavits that the amount borrowed from respondent Nos. 6, 7, and 8 was returned by way of adjustment towards material supplied were discarded by the Special Court due to lack of tangible proof. They argued that the appellants were reputed businessmen and that accounts of business were not maintained to substantiate the plea of repayment. The court ruled in favor of the respondents, stating that the miscellaneous applications filed by the respondent-Custodian in 2008 sought to recover Rs.50 lakhs from appellant Suman L. Shah towards the dues of respondent Nos. The respondent-Custodian's assertion that the appellants were garnishees of respondent No. 2-Pallav Sheth through respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 is based on a communication dated 5th May, 1998 purportedly issued by the Income Tax Department. The court found no reference to the outstanding dues of respondent Nos. 6, 7 and 8 or that the appellants were its debtors. The court also found no witness from the Income Tax Department examined in evidence before the Special Court in miscellaneous applications for recovery.

The Special Court (Trial of Offences Relating to Transactions in Securities) Amendment Act, 1994 (24 of 1994) grants the Special Court jurisdiction, powers, and authority over matters related to property attached under sub-section (3) of section 3 and transactions in securities entered into after April 1, 1991, and June 6, 1992. Any suit, claim, or legal proceeding pending before the commencement of the Special Court shall stand transferred on its commencement, and the Special Court may proceed to deal with it in the same manner as a suit, claim, or legal proceeding.

The Special Court is not bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), but must be guided by natural justice principles. It has the same powers as a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908) while trying a suit, including summoning and enforcing attendance, requiring document discovery and production, receiving evidence on affidavits, requisitioning public records, issuing commissions for witness examination, reviewing decisions, dismissing cases for default, setting aside orders of dismissal, and any other matter prescribed by the Central Government.

The appellants argued that dues towards respondent Nos. 6, 7, and 8, generated from borrowings made in 1996-1997, stood repaid and closed because the amounts had been repaid by cheques and adjustments towards materials supplied. However, no witness from the Income Tax Department was examined in support of the recovery application, and the appellants' depositions that they had returned borrowed amounts were not supported by proper evidence.

The impugned judgments are quashed and set aside, and appeals are allowed. The amounts deposited by the appellants in furtherance of the order dated March 14, 2014, will be reimbursed to them immediately. Pending applications will be disposed of.

-----------------

10 April, 2024

After Supreme Court rap, Ramdev files unconditional apology

Facing the daunting prospect of contempt charges, yoga guru and entrepreneur Ramdev has filed a fresh affidavit in the Supreme Court furnishing an “unconditional and unqualified apology” for disobeying court orders that prohibited Patanjali Ayurved from running misleading advertisements on health cures. Ramdev has also promised he will not make any public statement that may undermine the court’s authority or question the efficacy of modern medicine.

Patanjali managing director Acharya Balkrishna, too, submitted a new affidavit tendering “unconditional apology,” with a promise that no statements or advertisements making controversial remarks about other forms of medicine or unscientific claims about Patanjali products will be made in the future.

“I hereby tender my unconditional apology in regard to the issue of advertisements... I sincerely regret this lapse and I wish to assure the hon’ble court that the same will not be repeated. I hereby tender an unconditional and unqualified apology for the breach of the statement recorded in para 3 of the order of this hon’ble court dated 21.11.2023,” stated the affidavits filed separately by Ramdev and Balkrishna on April 6.

“I further undertake and ensure that the said statement shall be complied with in letter and spirit and no such similar advertisements shall be used... I seek pardon for the aforesaid breach of the statement. I undertake to always uphold the majesty of law and majesty of justice,” they added.

The affidavits will be considered by the top court on Wednesday. The new affidavits have come days after Ramdev found himself embroiled in a legal tussle with the Supreme Court, facing the looming threat of contempt charges that the yoga guru seeks to wriggle out of with his new apology affidavit.

On April 2, a bench of justices Hima Kohli and Ahsanuddin Amanullah rejected Ramdev’s oral apology, calling it a mere “lip service” and commenting the apology affidavits sought to be placed before it by the yoga guru and Balkrishna had to be taken with a “sack full of salt”.

While the two remained physically present before the bench, the court took serious notice of their “absolute defiance” in not adhering to the commitment given before it in the petition filed by the Indian Medical Association, and gave them a final chance to produce fresh affidavits within a week.

“You have to abide by the undertaking given to court...but you have broken every barrier. Consequences will now flow. For you to go like a shot and hold a press conference in the teeth of the undertaking shows you are complicit, and you flouted our orders...You are bound by law like any other common man,” it told Ramdev on April 2.

In a series of hearings on the medical association’s petition complaining against Ramdev’s contentious comments about modern medicine, also popularly known as allopathy in India, and allegedly misleading advertisements about Patanjali products, the Supreme Court expressed grave concern and emphasised the need for responsible discourse, especially during a pandemic like Covid-19.

The court admonished Patanjali for spreading misinformation that could undermine public trust in the health care system and had recorded an undertaking by the company in November 2023 that it would stop running any misleading advertisements and issuing disparaging statements against modern or any other form of medicine.

However, the medical association came back to the bench with a video clip of a press conference held by Ramdev and Patanjali advertisements in national media merely a day after their undertaking in the court on November 21. Additionally, the association produced a series of advertisements branding Patanjali products as cure for several ailments, including hypertension and diabetes.

Irked by the contravention of its order and its own assurance, the court by its subsequent orders of February 27 and March 19 called Ramdev and Balkrishna in person, asking them to show cause why they should not be punished for contempt of court.

On April 2, the bench pulled up Ramdev for his comments against doctors and modern medicine. “The disparaging comment by the contemnors is most unfortunate,” the bench said. “They are mocking at people (doctors) to whom people look up to.”

Expecting responsible behaviour Ramdev, the court added: “We are taking this seriously as people of your stature command respect in society. You have done a good job for yoga. There is onerous responsibility expected from you than from the common public.”

On that day, the court also hinted that Ramdev will have to further explain for an incorrect fact in his March 30 application for exemption from personal appearance. The plea said that a copy of his overseas trip ticket was annexed, but the court noted that this was not possible because the ticket was issued on March 31.

In his latest affidavit, Ramdev said he had asked his travel agent to issue him the overseas trip ticket on March 30 itself and endorsed the application for exemption from personal appearance on that day itself. However, the ticket was issued only on March 31, and thus, the date of signing the application and the issuance of ticket were different.

“I tender and unconditional and unqualified apology for the aforesaid lapse and assure this hon’ble court to be more vigilant in future,” Ramdev’s affidavit stated.

On April 2, the Centre and the Uttarakhand state licencing authority were also questioned by the court for allegedly turning a blind eye to Patanjali’s violations. The court remarked that they were “complicit” and provided a “long rope” to the company by failing to file criminal charges against it for misrepresenting Coronil as a cure for Covid-19, which it isn’t, and for subsequent advertisements that were released in violation of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954.

The authorities are likely to be questioned on Wednesday when the bench takes up the matter.

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 10 April 2024)

09 April, 2024

'Must march with time': SC to govt on permanent stint for women in Coast Guard

 After granting permanent commission to women short service commission officers in Army, Navy and Air Force, Supreme Court on Monday decided to examine similar career opportunity to women short service agreement (SSA) officers in Indian Coast Guard while ordering interim reinstatement of a woman officer who was discharged in Dec 2023 after a 14-year stint.

A bench of Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud, and Justices J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra also ordered transfer of the petition by the woman SSA officer Priyanka Tyagi from Delhi high court, which had declined to grant interim relief to her while agreeing to examine the larger issue of PC for women in ICG, to Supreme Court saying it presented a national issue of gender equality.

In a virtual one-sided hearing of Tyagi's lawyer, senior advocate Archana Pathak Dave, the bench said when different branches of armed forces have granted PC to women short service commission officer, ICG cannot remain an outlier. "The petition needs to be heard given the broader constitutional mandate of Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)," it said.

When attorney general R Venkataramani and additional solicitor general Vikramjit Banerjee attempted to convey the factual aspects of the denial of permanent commission to Tyagi, the bench said, "Look at the resistance you have for absorbing women in permanent commission in ICG, which must march with time."

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 9 April 2024)