03 March, 2016

Solved Question Paper of Delhi Assistant Public Prosecutors (PRE) Exam., 2005


Delhi Assistant Public Prosecutors (PRE) Exam., 2005

Law
Constitution Qs. 1 to 35
I.         Prior to the 42nd  Amendment of the Constitution, in which of the following cases the Supreme Court had observed that secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution?
A.          State of W.B. v. Union of India
B.           Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
C.           M.H. Kureshi v. State of Bihar
D.          Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
            (A)      1,2 and 3        (B)      1, 3 and 4
            (C)      2 and 3           (D)      2 and 4
Ans.    (c)

2.         Which of the following have been held to be permissible restrictions under Articles 25 and 26 by the Supreme Court?
A.          Vesting of religious activities of Jagannath Temple by an Act in a committee.
B.           Permitting non-Brahmins to perform the rites and rituals in a temple
C.           Denying the Muslims the right to run the Aligarh Muslim University
D.          Imposing ban on Loudspeakers for Azan and Kirtans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below;
(A)1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D)2, 3 and 4
      Ans.    (d)

3.         Which one of the following statements is correct?
In T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka, Unnikrishan v. State of Andhra Pradesh was
A.          overruled
B.           followed
C.           party overruled
D.          not mentioned
Ans.    (c)

4.         Which one of the following is the correct sequence of protection in respect of conviction for offences?
A.          Ex post facto penal laws-double jeopardy-self incrimination
B.           Double jeopardy- ex post facto penal laws-self incrimination
C.           Self incrimination-double jeopardy-ex post facto penal laws
D.          Ex post facto  penal laws-self incrimination-double jeopardy
Ans.    (a)

5.         Which of the following Constitutional Amendments were made to nullify the decision of the supreme Court in the mandal Case?
A.          The Constitution (Seventh fifth Amendment Act)
B.           The Constitution (Seventy-seventh Amendment) Act
C.           The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment)Act
D.          is not admissible
Select the correct answer using the code given below;
A.          1, 3 and 4
B.           2 and 3
C.           2 and 4
D.          1 and 4
Ans.    (c)

6.         Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List-I                                                List-II
A.
Vineet Narain v. Union of India
Curative Petition
B.
Kanu Sanyal v. D.M., Darjeeling
Habeas Corpus
C.
Roopa Ashok v. Ashok Hurra
Continuing Mandamus
D.
Chandra Kumar Case
Administrative Tribunals
Code:
              A        B         C         D
A.       3        4          1          2
B.        1        2          3          4
C.        3        2          1          4
D.       1        4          3          2
Ans.    (c)

7.          Consider the following statements:
A person who is not a member of Parliament
A.       cannot be appointed as a Minister
B.        can be appointed as a Minister for six months.
C.        can be appointed as a Minister for six months term renewable by another six months.
D.       can be appointed as a Minister beyond six months on his election to either House of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
A.       2 and 4
B.        2, 3 and 4
C.        1 only
D.       2 and 3
Ans.    (a)

8.         Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I                                                   List II
A.
President is the formal head of Government of India
1.      U.N. Rao v. Indria Gandhi
B.
Actual executive power of the Union is with the Council of Ministers
2.      Samsher Singh v.
State of Punjab
C.
Presidential election disputes are decided by the Supreme Court
3.      Article 79
D.
President is a part of Parliament
4.      Article 71
Code
              A        B         C         D
             A.    2          1          4          3
             B.     3          4          1          2
             C.     2          4          1          3
             D.    3          1          4          2
Ans.    (a)

9.          Consider the following objectives stated in the Preamble of the Constitution
A.       Equality of Status and of opportunity
B.        Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual
C.        Justice social, economic and political
D.       Liberty of thought, expression and belief
What is the correct order in which these find places in the Preamble?
A.       4-3-2-1
B.        2-3-1-4
C.        1-4-3-2
D.       3-4-1-2
Ans.    (d)

10.       In which one of the following cases were the provisions of the Constitutions (Forty Second Amendment) Act which gave precedence to all or any Directive Principles of States Policy over the Fundamental Rights invalidated by the Supreme Court?
A.       Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
B.        Waman Rai v. Union of India
C.        Kesavananda Bharathi v. State of Kerala
D.       Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
Ans.    (d)

11.        Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
                List I                                                   List II
A.
Article 31-A
Acquisition of Estates
B.
Article 31-B
Exercise of police power
C.
Article 32
Appointment of Chief Justice of India
D.
Article 148
Attorney General of India
Ans.    (a)

12.       Match List-I Article with List-II Power and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I                                                   List II
A.
Article 72
1.      President’s Ordinance
B.
Article 123
2.      Governor’s ordinance making power
C.
Article 161
3.      President’s pardoning power
D.
Article 213
4.      Governor’s pardoning power
Code:
                         A         B         C      D
A.       2        4          1       2
B.        3        1          4       2
C.        2        1          4       3
D.       3        4          1       2
Ans.    (b)

13.       Match list-I Article with List-II Power and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List-I                                               List-II
(Article)                                         (Power)  
A.
Article 129
1.      Original Jurisdiction
B.
Article 131
2.      Appellate Jurisdiction
C.
Article 132
3.      Appeal by special leave
D.
Article 136
4.      Powers of Court of Record
Code:
              A        B        C           D
A.          2       3        4           1
B.           4       1        2           3
C.           2       1        4           3
D.          4       3        2           1
Ans.    (b)

14.        Which one of the following statements is correct?
Parliament has power to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List in the national interest
A.          on passing a resolution with required majority by the concerned State Legislative Assembly
B.           on passing a resolution with required majority by the Rajya Sabha
C.           on passing a resolution with required majority by the Lok Sabha
D.          on promulgation of an ordinance by the President.
Ans.    (a)

15.        Consider the following statements:
Whenever the question is whether a State Legislation has encroached upon the field of the Union Legislation, the Court will decide the competence of the Legislature and validity of such legislation by applying
A.          repugnancy
B.           colourable legislation
C.           pith and substance
D.          harmonious construction
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.          1 and 2                   
B.           1 only
C.           3 only
D.          3 and 4
Ans.    (c)

16.        Which one of the following statements is correct?
When Emergency is in operations, the President of India may declare that
A.       all Fundamental Rights are suspended
B.        all Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 are suspended
C.        all Fundamental Rights except Articles 19 and 20 are suspended
D.       all Fundamental Rights except Articles 21 and 22 are suspended
Ans.    (b)

17.        Consider the following statements:
The docrine of prospective overruling propounded by the Supreme Court in Golaknath Case held that the decision will have only prospective operation and was intended to save
A.       Constitution 4th Amendment Act
B.        Constitution 24th Amendment Act
C.        Constitution 17th Amendment Act
D.       Constitution 42nd Amendment Act
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A.          1, 2 and 3
B.           3 and 4
C.           2, 3 and 4
D.          1 and 2
Ans.    (c)

18.        Which one of the following statements is correct?
A.          No citizen of India shall accept a title from any foreign State and no title may be conferred by the State
B.           India may confer a title on a non-citizen
C.           A citizen may accept the title of Sir or Lord conferred by the Queen
D.          A foreigner in the service of India may accept a title from a foreign State
Ans.    (a)

19.        Which of the following statements is not correct?
A.          writ of certiorari lies against private domestic tribunals
B.           writ of certiorari and prohibition lie against inferior courts of law and tribunals
C.           Writ of certiorari and prohibition lie against any public authority which is required to act fairly
D.          Writ of certiorari and prohibition lie against any authority which violates principles of natural justice provide that it has the duty to act fairly
Ans.    (c)

20.        Consider the following statements:
A.          Parliamentary privileges are available to
B.           Attorney General when he participates in the proceedings of the House of the people
C.           Minister’s speech made in House of which he is not a member.
D.          an individual who is called upon to testify before the House.
When of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.       1 only
B.        1 and 2
C.        2 and 3
D.       1, 2 and 3
Ans.    (b)

21.        Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Speaker may be removed
A.          by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of total membership of the House
B.           by a resolution of the House of the People passed by two thirds majority of the members present and voting
C.           by a resolution of the House of the People moved after 14 days clear notice and passed by the majority of all the then members of the House
D.          by a resolution of the House of the People moved after 14 days clear notice and passed by two-thirds majority of members present and voting
Ans.    (c)

22.        Which one of the following statements is correct?
An ordinary bill introduced in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha becomes law:
A.          when it is passed by both the Housed and assent of the President is received
B.           as soon as it is passed by both the House
C.           as soon as it is passed by the House in which it is orginated
D.          None of the above
Ans.    (a)

23.        Which one of the following statements is correct?
The President can issue a proclamation of emergency:
A.          on the advice of the Prime Minister
B.           on the advice of the Council of Minister
C.           in his own discretion
D.          when the decision of the union cabinet for the issuance of such a proclamation has been communicated to him in writing.
Ans.    (d)

24.       Match List-I Case with List-II Article Involved and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
              List-I                                                                  List-II
              (Case)                                                                 (Article Involved)
A.       S.R. Bommai v. Union of India     1. Article 21
B.        P.V. Narsimha Rao v. State           2. Article 356
C.        A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shiv Kant       3. Article 105
D.       Lily Thomas v. Union of India      4.  Article 44
Code:  
              A         B         C         D
A.       1        4          3          2
B.        3        2          1          4
C.        1        2          3          4
D.       3        4          1          2
Ans.    (d)

25.       Disputes between States in India come to the Supreme Court under
A.          Appellate Jurisdiction
B.           Advisory Jurisdiction
C.           Original Jurisdiction
D.          None of the above
Ans.    (c)

26.       The equality provision viz. Article 14 of the Constitution of India has been influenced by the Constitution of
A.          the U.S.A.
B.           Canada
C.           Japan
D.          Australia
Ans.    (a)

27.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I                                                   List II
A.
Article 61
1.      Appointment of ad hoc judges in the Supreme Court
B.
Article 71
2.      High Courts are courts of record
C.
Article 127
3.      Procedure for the impeachment of the President
D.
Article 215
4.      Matters relating to the election of President or Vice-President
Code:
                         A        B     C   D
    A.       1       4     3    2
    B.        3       2     1    4
    C.        1       2     3    4
     D.       3       4     1    2
Ans.    (d)

28.         In which one of the following cases, has the Supreme Court observed that judicial review is a basic structure of the Constitution?
A.          S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
B.           S.P. Mittal v. Union of India
C.           Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D.          L.Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
Ans.    (d)

29.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I                                                   List II
A.
S.R. Chaudhari’s Case
1.      Electors have fundamental right to know antecedents of contesting candidates
B.
Murlai Deora’s Case
2.      Right to food is fundamental right under Article 21
C.
Association for Democratic Reforms Case
3.      Ban on smoking at public places
D.
PUCL Case
4.      Non-member cannot be reappointed as minister if he fails to get elected after six months
Code:
              A         B        C         D
 A.          1        3        4          2
 B.           4        2        1          3
 C.           1        2        4          3
 D.          4        3        1          2
Ans.    (d)

30.        Who among the following can remove a Judge of High Court from his office?
A.          President
B.           President on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
C.           President on the basis of resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
D.          Governor on the basis of resolution passed by the State Legislature
Ans.    (c)

31.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree or final order in a civil proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India if the high Court certifies under Article 134A that the case Involves
A.          a question of law
B.           a question of law or fact
C.           a substantial question of law or fact of public importance
D.          a substantial question of law of general importance
Ans.    (d)

32.       A Proclamation under Article 356 is required to be approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament-by
A.          Simple majority within one month
B.           Special majority within one month
C.           Special majority within two months
D.          Simple majority within two months
Ans.    (c)

33.       Which one of the following sets contains a feature which is not a basic feature of the, Constitution of India?
A.          Rule of law, republicanism, secularism
B.           Independence of judiciary, parliamentary democracy, federal polity
C.           Emergency provision, egalitarianism, dignity of the individual
D.          Parliamentary democracy, secularism, egalitarianism
Ans.    (c)

34.       Which of the following set is said to be the Golden Triangle of Indian Constitution?
A.          Articles 14, 15 and 16
B.           Articles 20, 21 and 22
C.           Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles
D.          Articles 14, 19 and 21
Ans.    (d)

35.       Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I                                                   List II
A.
Freedom of Speech and Expression
1.      Bennett Coleman v. Union of India
B.
Basic Features Theory
2.      Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C.
Freedom of movement and right to personal liberty
3.      Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D.
Independence
4.      S.P.Gupta v. Union of India
 Code:                                               
            A         B         C         D
(A)      1          2          3          4
(B)      3          4          1          2
(C)      1          4          3          2
(D)      3          2          1          4
Ans.    (a)

Evidence Qs. 36 to 73
36.       Which one of the following statements in respect of admissibility and relevancy is correct?
A.          An admissible fact is always a relevant fact
B.           A relevant fact is always an admissible fact
C.           A relevant fact is considered by the court as material fact, but judgment is not based upon it
D.          An admissible fact is a stage where the court taking any relevant fact on the record of the case, decides any right or liability and bases its judgement on it
Ans.    (a)

37.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
Facts forming part of the same transaction are facts
A.          which occurred at the same time and place
B.           which occurred at a different time and place
C.           which are connected with other facts on the basis of time, place, object, parties, acts or omissions
D.          None of the above
Ans.    (b)

38.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
The latest approach toward the evidentiary value of "identification parade", as laid down by the Supreme Court in Anil Kumar v. State of U.P. is that it is
A.          mandatory evidence
B.           evidence which may be dispensed with
C.           corroborative evidence in criminal proceedings
D.          evidence to support or to rebut any fact before the court in criminal proceedings
Ans.    (d)

39.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
The alibi under section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is decided on the basis of
A.          preponderance of probability
B.           preponderance of probability beyond reasonable doubt
C.           preponderance of possibility beyond reasonable doubt
D.          preponderance of higher probability or improbability as well as beyond reasonable doubt
Ans.    (d)

40.       Which one of the following statements correct?
Admission is acknowledging any right liability under civil law, made
A.          orally before a judicial authority
B.           in writing before a notary
C.           by conduct and document, as well as orally, but not in electronic form
D.          by conduct, orally, or in writing or contained in electronic form
Ans.    (d)

41.       What does police custody in the context of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 mean?
A.          Handcuffing by the police
B.           Confining the accused inside the police station by the police
C.           Restricting the movement of the accused
D.          Some kind of surveillance and restriction by the police
Ans.    (d)

42.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
A "Dying Declaration" made under section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is subject to the control of
A.          Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973
B.           Section 161 and 162 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
C.           Section 52 and 54 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D.          Section 158 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans.    (d)

43.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
"Hearsay evidence" become relevant
A.          when it is ratified by admission or confession
B.           when it comes under the ambit of section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.           when it is mentioned in any public document or is presumed by the court
D.          in all of the categories mentioned above
Ans.    (d)

44.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
A 'Public document' is a document which
A.          has been executed by a member of public
B.           has been made public
C.           has been addressed to the public in general
D.          was executed by a public servant in public capacity
Ans.    (d)

45.       For which of the following documents oral evidence cannot be given to remove any ambiguity?
A.          Documents in reference to existing fact
B.           Documents which need attestation by attesting witnesses
C.           Documents containing illegible characters, provincial or local expressions
D.          A will to which the Indian Succession Act, 1925 applies
Ans.    (d)

46.       A court cannot compel the parties to undergo a blood test, to establish the legitimacy of the child because it would amount to declaring the mother as unchaste and child as illegitimate. This view was laid down in which one of the following cases?
A.          Pawan Kumar v. Mukesh Kumari
B.           Subash v. Lata Shah
C.           Ningamma v. Chikkiya
D.          Gautam Kundu v. State of West Bengal
Ans.    (c)

47.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
The protection of professional communication 8S provided under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, In section 126 to 129 is available only
A.          for engaging an advocate to plead his case
B.           for disclosing communication to advocate or his colleagues
C.           before commission of the offence or illegal acts
D.          after commission of the crime or illegal acts
Ans.    (d)

48.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
In a trial of' A' for the murder of '8', marks on the ground produced by a struggle at or near the place of murder is a fact
A.          forming part of the same transaction
B.           necessary to explain or introduce relevant fact
C.           showing existence of state of mind or of body
D.          as to the occassion, cause or effect of facts in issue
Ans.    (d)

49.       Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
                                                                   
List I                                                   List II
A.
Noor Mohd. v. Imtiaz Ahmad
1.      Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
B.
Pratap Singh v. State of Punjab
2.      Section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.
Sardual Singh v. State of Bombay
3.      Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.
Raghunath v. State of U.P.
4.      Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act
Code:
                        A         B         C         D
A.     1          2          3          4
B.      3          4          1          2
C.      1          4          3          2
D.     3          2          1          4
Ans.    (a)

50.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
A struck B on the neck with a knife and this was seen by C who exclaimed, "A is killing 8". C's exclamation is
A.          relevant because it was spontaneous
B.           relevant because it forms part of the transaction
C.           relevant because it is relatable to the transaction
D.          relevant because it is a fact in issue
Ans.    (b)

51.       Which one of the following is not a public document?
A.          Letters between authorities
B.           Insurance policy
C.           Electoral list
D.          Order sheet in a judicial proceeding
Ans.    (b)

52.       Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
                                                                                  
List I                                                   List II
A.
Presumption as to books, maps and charts
1.      Section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act
B.
Presumption as to power of Attorney
2.      Section 87 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.
Presumption as to telephonic messages
3.      Section 88 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.
Presumption as to plants made by authority of the government
4.      Section 83 of the Indian Evidence Act
Code:
             A         B        C           D
A.          2       3        1           4
B.           4       1        3           2
C.           2       1        3           4
D.          4       3        1           2
Ans.    (c)

53.       Which of the following pairs in not correctly matched?
List I                                                   List II
A.
Admission by persons having and proprietary interest
Section 18 of the Indian Evidence Act
B.
Confession made after removal of impression caused by inducement
Section 28 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.
Admission by persons expressly referred to by party to suit
Section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.
Confession of an accused in police custody
Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act

54.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
A, who has taken vow of silence gives evidence in writing in an open court. His evidence shall be deemed to be
A.          documentary evidence
B.           circumstantial evidence
C.           oral evidence
D.          secondary evidence
Ans.    (c)

55.       Consider the following statements:
A.          Presumption as to documents thirty years old is mandatory
B.           A child is not competent to testify
C.           Doctrine of promissory estoppel is applicable against the government
D.          Privilege granted to lawyers under section 126 aims at the protection of lawyer
Which of the statements given above is-are correct?
A.          1 and 2                   
B.           2,3 and 4
C.           4 only
D.          3 only
Ans.    (c)

56.       A is indicted for the murder of B.C. says that B when dying, declared that A had given B the wound of which B died. Evidence is offered to show that, on a previous occasion, C said that the wound was not given by A.
Which one of the following is correct? The evidence is
A.          Prohibited under section 52 of the Indian Evidence Act
B.           admissible under section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act
C.           admissible under section 153 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.          admissible under section 155 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans.    (b)

57.       Consider the following statements:
A.          In criminal proceedings good character of the accused is always relevant
B.           In criminal proceedings bad character of the accused is always elevant
C.           In a civil case evidence of character of any person concerned is always admissible
D.          A previous conviction is relevant as evidence of bad character
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A.          2 and 3
B.           1, 2 and 4
C.           1 and 4
D.          1, 2 and 3
Ans.    (c)
                                               
58.       Consider the following statements:
The Indian Evidence Act is applicable to         
A.          the proceedings under chapter IX Cr.PC          
B.           court martial under the Army Act
C.           affidavits presented to any court
D.          an execution proceeding
Which of the statements given above are correct?
            (A)      1,2 and 3        (B)      2, and 4
            (B)      2 and 3           (D)      1 and 4
Ans.    (d)

59.       Which one of the following does not fall within the meaning of the term 'Court' used under indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A.          Revenue Tribunal
B.           Industrial Tribunal
C.           Registrar's Court
D.          Enquiry Commission, Legal Advisor and Excise Officer
Ans.    (d)

60.       Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact".
Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act contains the aforesaid principle of law?
            (A)      Section 9                    (B)      Section 10
            (C)      Section 11                 (D)      Section 12
Ans.    (c)

61.       Which of the following statements is correct?
A.          A dying declaration recorded by a Magistrate not empowered under section 164 Cr.PC cannot be proved by the oral evidence of the Magistrate
B.           The credit of the declarant cannot be impeached
C.           A dying declaration is substantive evidence
D.          If the declarant is not examined although alive, his declaration is admissible
Ans.    (c)

62.       Which of the following statements is correct?
A.          Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to third parties
B.           Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to criminal cases
C.           Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply if there is not completed contract
D.          Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to a contract if it cannot be specifically enforced
Ans.    (b)

63.       Which of the following facts can be proved under section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A.          The policy of insurance is affected on goods in ships from Kolkata to London, The goods are shipped in a particular ship which is lost. A party says that the particular ship was orally excepted from the policy.
B.           A agrees in writing to pay Rs. 1000 on the first of March, 2002. A party says that at the same time an oral agreement was made that money should not be paid' till the 31st of March, 2002.
C.           An estate called the Rampur Tea Estate is sold by a deed which contains a map of the property sold. One party says that land not included in the map had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed.
D.          A enters into a written contract with B to work in certain mines, the property of B, on certain terms. A says that he was induced to do so by a misrepresentation of B as to their value:
Ans.    (d)

64.       Which of the following observations is correct?
A.          Section 91 and 92 of the Indian Evidence Act may not be abrogated by special law
B.           Where section 91 does not apply section 92 also does not apply
C.           The law of estoppel does not override sections 91 to 94 of the Indian Evidence Act
D.          Section 91 and 92 apply even if there is no completed and binding contract
Ans.    (b)

65.       Which of the following statements is correct?
A.          Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act applies to contracts by infants
B.           Pardanashin ladies are exempt from estoppel
C.           A representation made by an agent is effectual for the purpose of estoppel as if it had been made by his principal
D.          An admission by an advocate even if it is erroneous in law is binding on his client
Ans.    (c)

66.       Which one of the following facts is protected from disclosure in a court of law?
A.          A, a client, says to B, an attorney "I have committed forgery and I wish you to defend me"
B.           A, a client, says to B, an attorney "I wish to obtain possession of property by the use of a forged deed on which I request you to sue"
C.           A, being charged. with embezzlement retains B, an attorney to defend him. In the course of the proceedings, B observes that an entry has been made in A's account book charging A with the sum said to have been embezzled which entry was not in the book at the commencement of his employment
D.          A, a client says to his attorney B, "I want to murder my enemy C. Please advise me how I may be able to murder C"
Ans.    (a)

67.       "An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice. "
Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act enunciates the aforesaid principle?
            (A)      Section 131   (B)      Section 132
            (C)      Section 133   (D)      Section 134
Ans.    (c)

68.       In which of the following circumstances are there no reasonable grounds for putting the question to the witness?
A.          A, a barrister, is told by a solicitor that an important witness is a dacoit. The barrister asks the question "Are you a dacoit?"
B.           An advocate is informed by a person in court that an important witness is a dacoit. The informant on being questioned by the advocate gives satisfactory reasons for his statement. The advocate asks this question, "Are you a dacoit?"
C.           A witness of whom nothing whatever is known is asked at random whether he is a dacoit.
D.          A witness of whom nothing whatever is known on being questioned as to his mode of life and means of living gives unsatisfactory answers. The witness is asked, "Are you a dacoit?"
Ans.    (c)

69.       Which of the following statements is correct?
A.          Leading questions may be freely asked in examination-in-chief of a witness
B.           Leading questions may be freely asked in cross-examination
C.           Leading questions may be freely in re-examination
D.          Leading questions may not be Ii witness of tender years
Ans.    (b)

70.       Which of the following pieces of evidence is not relevant under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.          A is tried for the murder of B.E. Evidence is given that A murdered C, that B knew that A to export money from A by threatening to make his knowledge public
B.           A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money. B denies the making of the bond. Evidence is given that B required money at the time of the bond.
C.           A customs officer gives evidence accused B made a confession of his to him
D.          A is tried for the murder of B by Evidence is given that before the of B, A procured poison similar to which was administered to B.
Ans.    (c)

71.       Which of the following pieces of evidence is not relevant under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.          A is accused of fraudulently delivering to another person a counterfeit coin which he knew to be counterfeit. Evidence is given that he was also in possession of other counterfeit coins.
B.           A sues B for  damage done by B’s dog which he knew to be ferocious. Evidence is given that the dog and previously bitten X, Y and Z and that they had made complaints to B.
C.           A is charged with shooting at B with intent to kill him. Evidence is given that A had previously shot at B.
D.          A is tried for the murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead. Evidence is given that A was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder them.
Ans.    (d)

72.       Which of the following statements is correct?
A.          The Indian Evidence Act applies to affidavits.
B.           The Indian Evidence Act applies to a proceeding whose object is to determine a jural between one person and another
C.           The Indian Evidence Act applies to arbitration proceedings.
D.          The Indian Evidence Act applies to departmental proceedings.
Ans.    (b)

73.       Consider the following statements:
A.          The proceedings of the Parliament or State Legislatures of India are judicially noticeable facts
B.           Rules of the road on land or at sea are not judicially noticeable facts.
C.           Criminal law in force in India is judicially noticeable fact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.          1 only
B.           2 and 3
C.           1, 2 and 3
D.          1 and 3
Ans.    (d)

I.P.C. Qs. 74 to 79
74.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
A.          Under Section 90 of the Indian Penal Code consent is said to be a free consent when
B.           given by a child above 12 years of age
C.           given by a person under of unsound mind
D.          given mind misconception of fact
Ans.    (a)

75.       In which one of the following cases the right of private defence of body does not extend to causing of death?
A.          Assault with the intention of committing kidnapping
B.           Assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust
C.           Wrongful restraint
D.          Assault with the intention of committing abduction
Ans.    (c)

76.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
Joint criminal liability based on common intention requires that
A.          criminal act is done by more that one person
B.           there is a common intention among the accused persons
C.           the accused has a participating presence in a  commission of the crime.
D.          All the above
Ans.    (d)

77.       In which of the following the right to private defence of property does not extend to causing of death?
A.       Robbery
B.        House breaking by night
C.        Mischief by fire
D.       House trespass
Ans.    (d)

78.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
Right of private defence of the body begins
A.          when a reasonable apprehension of danger of the body arises
B.           when there is an attack on the body
C.           when public authorities have refused protection
D.          when mental peace is disturbed.
Ans.    (a)

79.       The case of Gian Kaur v. state of Punjab relates to which one of the following?
A.          Murder
B.           Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
C.           Abetment of suicide
D.          Attempt to commit suicide
Ans.    (d)

Cr. P.C. Qs. 80 to 86
80.       Consider the following statements:
A.          Investigation is made by a police officer
B.           The object of police investigation is to collect evidence
C.           Investigation is a judicial proceeding
D.          Investigation is not a judicial proceedings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A.          1, 2 and 3
B.           1, 2 and 4
C.           2, 3 and 4
D.          1, 3 and 4
Ans.    (b)

81.       Under which section of Code of Criminal Procedure an accused person can himself be a competent witness for the defence?
A.          Section 311
B.           Section 313
C.           Section 315
D.          Section 319
Ans.    (c)

82.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a
A.          sentence of imprisonment not exceeding seven years
B.           sentence for life imprisonment
C.           sentence of imprisonment exceeding seven years
D.          death sentence
Ans.    (a)

83.       Who has the power of summary trial of a case?
A.          The Chief Judicial Magistrate
B.           The Metropolitan Magistrate
C.           Any Magistrate of the first class especially emplowered
D.          All the above
Ans.    (d)

84.       Who among the following is not empowered to tender pardon to accomplice under section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A.          Metropolitan Magistrate
B.           Magistrate of the second class
C.           Chief Judicial Magistrate
D.          Magistrate of the first class
Ans.    (b)

85.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
A conditional order for removal of public nuisance under section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure may be passed by
A.          District Magistrate
B.           Sub-divisional Magistrate
C.           Executive Magistrate specially empowered
D.          Any of the above
Ans.    (d)

86.       Which of the following are disputes relating to land or water under section 145 Cr. PC, 1973?
A.          Disputes regarding the right to collect rent in respect of immovable property
B.           Dispute relating to possession of standing crops
C.           Dispute in right to fishery
D.          All of the above
Ans.    (d)

I.P.C. Qs. 87 to 95
87.       Consider the following statements?
An act forbidden for the first time by a Statute passed recently rendering it impossible for the wrongdoer to have knowledge of it is
A.          a good defence
B.           not a defence
C.           a partial defence
D.          criminal offence
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A.          1 and 2
B.           3 and 4
C.           2 and 4
D.          1 and 4
Ans.    (b)

88.       Which one of the following statement correct?
A.          A person who is a trespasser but has possession gets the right to defend possession against the police
B.           every person including the true owner
C.           every person except the true owner
D.          None of the above three
Ans.    (c)

89.       A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to do so. A is guilty of which one of the following?
A.          Criminal conspiracy
B.           Abetment to attempt of murder
C.           Abetment to commit murder
D.          No offence
Ans.    (c)

90.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
Criminal conspiracy requires
A.          an agreement between two or persons
B.           doing of an illegal act
C.           doing of a legal act with illegal means
D.          doing an act which may be an offence or not
Ans.    (d)

91.       Match List I with List II and select the c answer using the code given below the list:
         List I                                                   List II
A.
Section 120 A
1.      Sedition
B.
Section 121 A
2.      Abetment of offence outside
C.
Section 124 A
3.      Criminal conspiracy
D.
Section 108 A
4.      Conspiracy for waging war
Code:                                    
A         B         C         D
(A)      2          1          4          3
(B)      3          4          1          2
(C)      2          4          1          3
(D)      3          1          4          2
Ans.    (b)

92.       Several persons acting in concert, forcibly removed an ox and two cows from the possession of a butcher for the purpose of protecting them from slaughter. They are guilty of which one of the following?
A.          Extortion
B.           Robbery
C.           Rioting
D.          No offence
Ans.    (d)

93.       Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Forgiving false evidence, a person must
A.          be legally bound to state the truth
B.           make a false statement
C.           know that the statement is likely to cause injury to some person
D.          believe that the statement is false
Ans.    (c)

94.       The accused, a shopkeeper, in sudden quarrel hit his wife on head with an iron weight 200 gm which resulted in her death. The accused is liable for which one of the following?
A.          Grievour hurt
B.           Attempt to murder
C.           Simple hurt
D.          Culpable homicide
Ans.    (d)

95.       A, for the purpose of inducing B to desist from a civil suit, threatens to burn B’s house. A is guilty of which one of the following?
A.          Mischief
B.           Criminal intimidation
C.           Cheating
D.          Extortion
Ans.    (b)

Cr.P.C. Qs. 96 to 107
96.       Which one of the following statements is correct?
The words and expressions, used but not defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure, shall have the meaning assigned to them in the
A.          Indian Penal Code
B.           Code of Civil Procedure
C.           The Limitation Act
D.          Indian Evidence Act
Ans.    (a)

97.       Claims and objections to attachment of property to a person absconding must be preferred within how much period?
            (A)      Six months    (B)      One year
            (C)      Two years      (D)      Three years
Ans.    (a)

98.       Consider the following statements:
A.          The words in section 145 are mandatory
B.           The words in section 145 are discretionary
C.           The proceedings under section 107 can be converted under section 145
D.          The proceedings under section 107 cannot be converted under section 145.
 Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A)      1 and 2          (B)      2 and 3
(C)      1 and 3           (D)      3 and 4
Ans.    (b)

99.       A magistrate can authorize the detention of accused in police custody for a period of fifteen days. When does this period begin to run?
A.          From the time of arrest by the police
B.           After production of the accused before the Magistrate
C.           On expiry of twenty four hours of his arrest
D.          After first remand
Ans.    (c)

100.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
Dismissal of complaint under section 203 results are
A.          bar to rehearing by the same Magistrate
B.           bar to rehearing by any other Magistrate
C.           bar to rehearing a fresh complaint on the same facts
D.          no bar to rehearing a fresh complaint on the same facts
Ans.    (d)

101.    Whenever there is alteration or addition in the charge after commencement of trial, the accused shall be allowed to recall or re- examine the witnesses or call further witnesses. How is this interpreted as?
A.          A right of the accused
B.           Not a right of the accused
C.           A duty of the court
D.          In the discretion of the court
Ans.    (a)

102.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
To give a personal hearing to the accused on the question of sentence is
A.          discretionary
B.           mandatory
C.           a formal requirement
D.          not necessary
Ans.    (a)

103.    Consider the following statements regarding legal aid to accused at State expenses:
Legal aid is
A.          a right of the accused
B.           charity by the State
C.           available in trial before Sessions Court only
D.          available in all trials
Which of the statements given above are correct?
            (A)      1 and 2           (B)      2 and 3
            (C)      1 and 3           (D)      2 and 4
Ans.    (c)

104.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
On submission of death sentence for confirmation to the High Court, the confirmation of death sentence or any new sentence, or order shall be made passed and signed by at least
            (A)      one judge       (B)      two judges
            (C)      three judges   (D)      full bench
Ans.    (b)

105.    Which one of the following statements is not correct?
There shall be no appeal if a sentence of imprisonment/fine is passed by the
A.          High Court-not exceeding six months
B.           Sessions Judge-not exceeding three months
C.           Metropolitan Magistrate-not exceeding two months
D.          Magistrate first class-not exceeding one month
Ans.    (c)

106.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
Where a sentence of death has been commuted under section 433 into life imprisonment, such person shall not be released from prison unless he has undergone imprisonment for
A.          twenty years
B.           fourteen years
C.           twelve years
D.          ten years
Ans.    (b)

107.    Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Anticipatory bail may be granted
A.          subject to the limitations imposed by section 437
B.           on making out a special case
C.           on possibility of accusation of non- bailable offence
D.          where a case has been registered against the petitioner
Ans.    (d)

I.P.C. Qs. 108 to 114
108.    A and B go with intent to kill C. A stood on guard with a spare gun in hand but did not shoot C. B killed C. Which one of the following is correct?
A.          A and B both are equally liable for murder of C
B.           A is not liable for murder of C
C.           Only B is liable for murder of C
D.          None of above
Ans.    (a)

109.    In which one of the following cases was the distinction between common intention and similar intention pointed out?
A.          Barendra Kumar Ghose v. King Emperor
B.           Mahoob Shah v. King Emperor
C.           Ram Parsad v. State of U.P.
D.          J.M. Desai v. State of Bombay
Ans.    (a)

110.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
A hangman who hangs the convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of
A.          section 94 of the Indian Penal code
B.           section 76 of the Indian Penal code
C.           section 78 of the Indian Penal Code
D.          section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
Ans.    (c)

111.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
Where a police constable fires upon a mob under the orders of his superior officer and there by kills  a person
A.          the constable is not liable because he had no intention to kill
B.           the constable is not liable because he is permitted to fire and kill
C.           the constable is not liable because he, in good faith believed himself to be bound by law to obey the orders of his superior officer
D.          the constable is not liable because it was a mistake
Ans.    (c)

112.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
Defence of insanity section 84 of the Indian Penal Code relates to
A.          unsoundness of mind of any kind
B.           medical insanity
C.           legal insanity
D.          congenital insanity
Ans.    (c)

113.    Under which of the following sections of Indian Penal Code, the right of private defence extends to causing death?
A.          Section 102 and section 105
B.           Section 100 and section 104
C.           Section 100 and section 103
D.          Section 102 and section 106
Ans.    (c)

114.    Which one of the following statements is correct?
Whether the provocation was grave and sudden enough to prevent the offence from amounting to murder is a
A.          Question of fact
B.           question of law
C.           presumption under the law
D.          mixed question of fact and law
Directions:
The following 6 items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other as ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
A.          Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.           Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.           A is true but R is false
D.          A is false but R is true
Ans.    (a)

115.    Assertion (A): Statement of a deceased, before his death, as to the cause of death of another person is not admissible under section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act.
Reasons (R): Rules relating to a dying declaration in England are different from those in India.
Ans.    (b)

116.    Assertion (A): The vertical division of powers is called the theory of separation of powers.
Reasons (R): The Constitution of India does not provide for a rigid separation of powers.
Ans.    (d)

117.    Assertion (A): Equal pay for equal work is a constitutional goal to be achieved by the State.
Reasons (R): Claims for equal pay for equal work is a fundamental right of an employee.
Ans.    (c)

118.    Assertion (A): Part III and Part IV of the Constitution of India are supplementary to each other.
Reasons (R): Fundamental Rights are enforceable.
Ans.    (b)

119.    Assertion (A): Article 15 of the Constitution of India is a particular application of the right to equality
Reason ®:     Articles, 14, 15 and 16 of the Constitution of India collectively lay down the principles of equality and prohibition of discrimination.
Ans.    (a)

120.    Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of India confers a right an all minorities to establish educational institutions.
Reasons (R): The right to establish and administer educational institutions by the minorities is based solely on religion

Ans.    (c)

Courtesy:-
Legal Point Fondation

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