Showing posts with label Legalnews;Legal Tip;Legal Alert;Legal Postmortem;Legal Highlights. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Legalnews;Legal Tip;Legal Alert;Legal Postmortem;Legal Highlights. Show all posts

25 March, 2024

Weekly Legal Updates ( 17 March to 23 March 2024)

 Weekly Legal Updates main objective is to update the legal knowledge of law students, lawyers, academicians and other professionals. If we do not update our legal knowledge regularly, our knowledge become redundant.

Don’t be selective, disclose full bond details: Supreme Court to SBI

Supreme Court on Monday directed chairman of State Bank of India to disclose to Election Commission by Thursday 5pm all the information in its possession relating to issuance and redemption of electoral bonds (EBS), from April 12, 2019 to Feb 15, 2024, their unique alphanumeric numbers and serial numbers included. It asked EC to “forthwith upload the data” on receipt from SBI.

“In order to fully effectuate the court’s Feb 15 judgment and March 11 order, and to avoid any controversy in future, SBI chairman shall file an affidavit on or before 5pm on Thursday indicating that SBI has disclosed all details of the EBs which were in its possession and custody and that no details have been withheld from disclosure,” SC said.

Declining to entertain objections from top industry associations Assocham, FICCI and CII which apprehended that disclosure of invisible alphanumeric numbers embossed on the EBs could be misused by activist lawyers to file motivated PILs to hound industries and industrialists, a bench of CJI D Y Chandrachud, and Justices Sanjiv Khanna, B R Gavai, J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra upbraided SBI for belying the trust SC had put in the top public sector bank for a complete disclosure on EBs in compliance with its Feb 15 judgment and March 11 directions.

On March 11, SC had squarely rejected SBI’s plea for a nearly four-month extension of the March 6 deadline set in the Feb 15 judgment, to furnish all EB details to EC and had given it 30 hours to do so. “We banked on SBI to be candid and fair to the court. Why has SBI not disclosed all the details? SBI’s attitude appears to be, ‘you tell us to disclose a particular detail and we'll disclose it’. That’s not fair process,” the bench said.

“This is an SC judgment. As chairman of SBI, you are duty-bound to comply with the judgment and disclose every part of the information in the bank's custody as directed by SC. There cannot be any confusion as SBI has access to the best legal advice,” the bench said and put sharp questions to senior advocate Harish Salve as he sought to explain why a misunderstanding occurred.

The criticism came with a tongue-in-cheek “hope you are not arguing for the political parties” remark. However, Salve, the bank’s counsel, managed to salvage matters by explaining that the delay on SBI’s part was due to a genuine confusion. He stated categorically that SBI was ready to make a clean breast of the entire gamut of EBrelated information in its custody.

Salve said, “In the judgment, SC dealt with diverse aspects and felt some degree of confidentiality to be maintained as is inbuilt in electoral trusts. Whatever was directed in the order was furnished by SBI to EC, including date of purchase of EBs, donors’ identities, and denominations as well as recipient political parties, dates of redemptions and the denominations. If the numbers are to be given, we will give, there is no problem.”

For petitioner NGO Association for Democratic Reforms, advocate Prashant Bhushan said while smaller parties have disclosed the names of EB donors, all major political parties have blanked the information out. He said the court should direct them to furnish this data to EC forthwith.

Bhushan also said SBI has given data only from April 19, 2019, onwards about purchase and redemption of EBs by donors and political parties, respectively, whereas the bonds had been in place prior to that and information about the bonds purchased and redeemed before April 19 also needed to be disclosed.

SC rejected both pleas and said the five-judge bench, while delivering the judgment on Feb 15, had consciously taken a decision to fix the cut-off date as April 19, 2019, as on that day, SC had passed the first interim order directing political parties to make disclosure about donations received through EBs. “Changing the cut-off date, after the pronouncement of judgment, would be akin to reviewing our own decision, which we will not do in these proceedings,” the bench said.

On request of SBI counsel Sanjay Kapur, the bench dispensed with the presence of SBI’s chief general manager and deputy general manager, who were in the court fearing initiation of contempt proceedings by the court.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 19 March 2024)

Supreme Court agrees to list PIL against practice of parties promising freebies during polls

The Supreme Court agreed to hear a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) on Thursday challenging the practice of political parties promising freebies during elections.

This development comes just ahead of the upcoming general elections starting on April 19. The PIL calls for Election Commission to use its authority to freeze election symbols and cancel
registration of parties engaged in such practices.

The bench, led by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud and Justices J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, acknowledged the importance of the matter and scheduled it for discussion on Thursday.

The PIL, filed by lawyer Ashwini Upadhyay and represented by senior advocate Vijay Hansaria, stresses the need for a complete ban on populist tactics aimed at influencing voters. It argues that such practices violate the Constitution and disrupt the fairness of the electoral process. The plea urges the court to recognise that offering irrational freebies funded by the public before elections can unduly sway voters and undermine the integrity of democracy.

The petitioner highlights the concerning trend of using freebies as a means to garner electoral support, equating it to bribing voters at the expense of public funds. The plea emphasises the necessity of curbing this unethical practice to uphold democratic principles and maintain the sanctity of elections. It calls on the Election Commission to introduce a new condition in the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968, prohibiting parties from promising or distributing irrational freebies prior to elections.

The PIL asserts that the distribution of private goods or services using public funds before elections violates various articles of the Constitution, including Article 14. Currently, there are eight national political parties and 56 state-level recognized parties, with approximately 2,800 unregistered political parties in the country. The upcoming general elections for the 18th Lok Sabha will commence on April 19 and conclude on June 1, with vote counting scheduled for June 4.

The nomination process for the initial phase, covering 102 parliamentary constituencies across 21 states and Union territories, began on Wednesday with the issuance of notifications. The PIL's plea reflects growing concerns over the influence of freebies on the electoral process and seeks judicial intervention to safeguard the integrity of democratic values during elections.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 20 March 2024)

No stay on CAA Rules, Supreme Court tells Govt to respond to pleas

WHILE IT refused to stay the implementation of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act Rules notified earlier this month, the Supreme Court on Tuesday issued notice to the Centre, asking it to respond to petitions challenging the Rules.

A three-judge bench led by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud also issued notices to the Centre on petitions challenging the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019.

“Solicitor General Tushar Mehta submits that four weeks time may be granted to file response to the applications for stay at this stage. The request of four weeks time is opposed on the ground that in the meantime, if citizenship were to be granted, that process would become irreversible. Bearing in mind all the facts and circumstances, we direct that the proceedings be listed on April 9,” the bench, which included Justices J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, said.

The bench asked the Centre to file its reply by April 2, after which the petitioners would have to respond by April 8.

Appearing for the Centre, Mehta said there were 236 petitions challenging the Act, and 20 applications challenging the Rules. He urged the court to grant him time to reply.

Mehta also sought to clarify that the CAA “does not take away the citizenship of any person”. “No new person is also being given (citizenship) and only those (who) entered before 2014 are being considered,” he said.

Senior Advocate Indira Jaising, who appeared for a petitioner, urged the court to issue directions barring grant of citizenship until final adjudication of the matter, or to specify in the order that any citizenship granted under the Rules would be subject to the outcome of the petitions. “The point is citizenship once granted cannot be terminated under the law. Under orders of the court, it’s a different matter,” she said.

Senior Advocate Kapil Sibal, who appeared for the Indian Union Muslim League (IUML), also a petitioner, echoed the request.

“This notification has been issued after four years and three months. The Rules were not notified earlier. Under the law, notification has to be issued within six months. They have to go back to Parliament every three months. Since 2020, they have been going to Parliament every three months… Now, the problem is if any process for citizenship starts and somebody gets citizenship, it will be impossible to reverse it for several reasons. And these petitions will become infructuous. Therefore, that process should not start. If they have waited… till now, they can wait till the court hears it. Hear the matter… but why should the process start because, both under international law and otherwise, once you grant citizenship, you cannot take it back,” said Sibal, adding that there was no urgency.

“We have got several challenges that are pending in these petitions… there are serious issues of constitutional law,” he said.

The court, however, declined to pass any order on their request. “They don’t even have the infrastructure in place — the district empowered committee, the central empowered committee, nothing is in place,” the CJI said.

“But we can’t go on that,” said Jaising, and repeated her plea.

Sibal, however, said they would approach the court again if there was any development. “Yes, we are there,” the court responded.

Senior Advocate Ranjit Kumar, representing the Balochistan Hindu Panchayat, said if citizenship was granted to a persecuted Hindu from Balochistan who entered India before December 2014, “how would it affect anybody else’s rights?”

“They will get the right to vote. That’s how it affects,” countered Jaising. Sibal, however, did not seem to favour the argument.

Sticking to her stand, Jaising said the SG should make a statement that in the meantime, no citizenship would be granted under the new Rules.

Declining the request, Mehta said: “I’m not making any statement”.

Advocate Nizam Pasha, appearing for AIMIM chief Asaduddin Owaisi, raised the issue of the National Register of Citizens (NRC), and said the applications of non-Muslims excluded by the NRC would now be processed under the CAA. “That’s the prejudice caused,” Pasha said.

Mehta, however, sought to delink the two issues. “This attempt was made outside the court a few years back — misleading people that this is NRC, you are going to be ousted etc. NRC is not an issue before your Lordships. Only grant of citizenship under CAA is,” he asserted.

The court said it would take a prima facie view only after hearing all sides.

Some of the petitioners also referred to the court’s earlier direction to segregate matters pertaining to Assam and other Northeast states from the other petitions. The bench agreed to do this.

The Centre paved the way for implementation of the CAA with the notification of the relevant rules on March 11 this year, four years after the contentious law was passed by Parliament, easing the process of granting citizenship to non-Muslim migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan who came to India before December 31, 2014.

(Courtesy:- The Indian Express, 20 March 2024)

Supreme Court puts on hold Centre's notification on setting up 'fact-check unit'

The Supreme Court on Thursday stayed government's notification on "Fact Checking Unit" till a third
judge of Bombay high court gives verdict after hearing the legality of rules activating the FCU. The third judge is hearing the case after a division bench of the high court delivered a split verdict on validity of FCU.

The Centre had on Wednesday notified the fact check unit under the Press Information Bureau as the authorised unit for the Union government. It was notified under the recently amended
Information and Technology Rules of 2021.

A bench headed by Chief Justice DY Chandrachud set aside the March 11 order of the Bombay high court which had refused to grant interim stay on setting up the FCU under the amended IT Rules to identify fake and false content on social media about the Union government.

"We are of the considered view that questions before the HC deal with core questions on Article 19(1)(a) of the constitution," the bench said.

"We are of the view that notification dated March 20, 2024, after rejection of application of interim relief, needs to be stayed. The challenge to the validity of 3(1)(b)(5) involves serious constitutional question and the impact of the rule on free speech and expression would need to be analysed by the high court," the bench, also comprising Justices JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, said.

The ministry of electronics and information technology had notified the Press Information Bureau's Fact Check Unit as the designated body to flag misinformation about Central government departments to social media platforms.

Under the IT Rules of 2021, social media platforms could lose the legal liability protections they enjoy for content posted by users, if they choose to keep notified misinformation available online.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 21 March 2024)

SC denies bail to BRS leader K Kavitha in Delhi excise scam case

The Supreme Court on Friday refused to grant bail to BRS leader K Kavitha, who has been arrested by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the Delhi excise policy scam case. A bench of Justices Sanjiv Khanna, MM Sundresh, and Bela M Trivedi directed Kavitha to approach the trial court.

Supreme Court said that it has to follow a uniform policy for all and it cannot allow people to approach the apex court directly for bail just because they are political persons or can afford to move the Supreme Court directly.

SC, however, directed that a bail plea if filed must be decided expeditiously by the trial court.
Regarding Kavitha's challenge to the Prevention of money laundering act (Pmla) provisions, the court served notice to the ED for a response within six weeks.

"The petition challenging the provisions will come up with the pending matters," the bench told senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing for Kavitha.

Further, Sibal said that people are being arrested on the basis of an approver's statement. In response, the apex court said it is not going into the merit of the case at the moment.

Kavitha, a Telangana legislative council member and daughter of former CM K Chandrashekar Rao, was arrested on March 15 and remanded to the ED's custody till March 23 in the case.

Courtesy:- The Times of India, 22 March 2024)

Patanjali tenders unconditional apology for ad after Supreme Court issues notice

Patanjali Ayurved has tendered an unconditional apology to the Supreme Court in response to a notice asking it to show cause why contempt of court proceedings should not be initiated for allegedly flouting an undertaking given to the top court on November 21, 2023.

Hearing a plea by the Indian Medical Association (IMA) accusing the company of allegedly violating provisions of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954, and making statements critical of allopathy, a Supreme Court bench of Justices Hima Kohli and Ahsanuddin Amanullah had on March 19 sought the personal presence of company Managing Director Acharya Balkrishna and Baba Ramdev before it.

The court was upset about an advertisement issued by the company on December 4, 2023, after it had assured the court on November 21, 2023, that it would not make any “casual statements claiming medicinal efficacy or against any system of medicine”.

In the affidavit filed in response to the notice, Acharya Balkrishna said he “regrets that the advertisement in question which was meant to contain only general statements inadvertently included the offending sentences”.

“The same was bona-fide and added in routine course by the media department of the…Company”, he said adding “the personnel of the media department of the…Company were not cognizant of the order dated 21.11.2023.”

“The Deponent on behalf of Respondent No. 5 (Patanjali Ayurved) submits an unqualified apology before this Hon’ble Court for the breach of the statement recorded in Para 3 of the order dated 21.11.2023,” the affidavit said. Balkrishna also sought to assure the court that he “will ensure that such advertisements are not issued in the future”.

The affidavit added, “By way of clarification, not as a defense, the Deponent begs to submit that its intention is only to exhort the citizens of this country to lead a healthier life by consuming products of the Respondent No. 5 including products for lifestyle ailments through the use age old literature and materials supplementing and backed by ayurvedic research.”

Notably, the affidavit also said that “the Schedule J of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 read with Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1955 is in an archaic state and the last changes were introduced in 1996…” by the Centre.

It said that the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940, “was passed when scientific evidence in Ayurveda research were lacking. Respondent No. 5 Company now possess evidence-based scientific data with clinical research conducted in Ayurveda, which would demonstrate the advances made through scientific research in the context of diseases mentioned in the said schedule”.

Acharya Balkrishna said his “only quest is for a better and healthier life for each and every citizen and to reduce the burden on the countries healthcare infrastructure by providing holistic, evidence based solutions for lifestyle related medical complications through the usage of age old traditional approach of Ayurveda and Yoga”.

“In fact, the idea was to promote the ayurvedic products which are based on age old literature/material backed by scientific research,” the affidavit added.

(Courtesy:- The Indian Express, 22 March 2024)

Supreme Court reverses trial court order against Bloomberg in Zee defamation case

The Supreme Court on Friday set aside a trial court's order directing international media group Bloomberg to take down an allegedly defamatory news article against Zee Entertainment.

The top court was hearing a plea filed by Bloomberg against the March 14 order of the Delhi High Court, which dismissed its appeal against the trail court order.

A three-judge bench headed by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud said the error committed by the trial judge had been perpetuated by the high court.

"The error committed by the trial judge had been perpetuated by the high court. Merely recording that a prima-facie case exists for a grant of injunction, the balance of convenience lies in Zee's favour and that an irreparable injury would be caused would not amount to application of mind in the case," the bench, also comprising Justices J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, said while granting liberty to Zee to approach the trial court afresh with its prayer seeking injunction.

Reacting on the apex court order, Bloomberg News spokesperson said, "We are very encouraged by today's decision from the Supreme Court of India, and we continue to stand by this story."

Justice Shalinder Kaur of the high court had said there was no ground to interfere with the ex-parte interim order passed by the Additional District Judge (ADJ) on the lawsuit by Zee Entertainment Enterprises Limited over the article published on February 21, and ordered Bloomberg to comply with the direction in three days.

On March 1, the ADJ had directed Bloomberg to take down the allegedly defamatory article within a week, saying Zee had established a "prima facie case for passing ad-interim ex-parte orders of injunction".

The ADJ had said the balance of convenience is in Zee's favour and irreparable loss and injury might be caused to the company if the injunction was not granted.

The appellant contended before the high court that the lawsuit was intended to intimidate and silence their right to free and fair speech.

It was also claimed that the ADJ did not give the portal an opportunity to place before it several other articles published prior in time and was denied a right to establish their case.

(Courtesy:- The Hindustan Times, 22 March 2024)

ED is required to furnish grounds of arrest in writing: SC

The Supreme Court dismissed the Centre’s plea seeking review of its October 3, 2023 judgment directing the Enforcement Directorate (ED) to furnish grounds of arrest in writing to the accused at the time of arrest.

“We have carefully gone through the review petitions and the connected papers. We do not find any error, much less apparent, in the order impugned, warranting its reconsideration. The review petitions are dismissed accordingly,” a bench of Justices A S Bopanna and Sanjay Kumar said in its March 20, 2024 order.

In its October 2023 judgment, the bench, while stating that ED is “not expected to be vindictive in its conduct” and has to act fairly and in a transparent manner, had ordered “it will be necessary, henceforth, that a copy of grounds of arrest is furnished to the arrested person as a matter of course and without exception”.

The judgment came on a plea by Pankaj Bansal and Basant Bansal, Directors of M3M real estate group, who had challenged an order of the Punjab and Haryana HC which declined to set aside their arrest by the ED under the PMLA.

The money laundering case in which Basant and Pankaj Bansal were arrested pertained to an FIR filed by the anti-corruption bureau of the Haryana Police in April last year.

Noting that grounds of arrest were only read to the accused and had not been given to them in writing, the bench said it “reeks of arbitrariness”. Expressing its disapproval, the bench said the “chronology of events speaks volumes and reflects rather poorly, if not negatively, on the ED’s style of functioning”.

Holding their arrest illegal, the bench said the investigating officer reading out the reasons for arrest to the accused does not fulfill the mandate of Article 22 (1) of Constitution and Section 19 (1) of the PMLA.

The bench said, “Being a premier investigating agency… every action of the ED in the course of such exercise is expected to be transparent, above board and conforming to the pristine standards of fair play in action. The ED, mantled with far-reaching powers under the stringent Act of 2002, is not expected to be vindictive in its conduct and must be seen to be acting with utmost probity and with the highest degree of dispassion and fairness.”

(Courtesy:- The Indian Express, 23 March 2024)

Supreme Court: No green nod exemption for infrastructure projects' digging

Giving primacy to the environment over expansion of road networks and other linear projects like laying down pipelines, the Supreme Court has quashed a four-year-old central notification exempting digging or sourcing of earth for such infrastructural schemes from prior mandatory environment clearance (EC).In an elaborate 32-page judgment, Justices A S Oka and Sanjay Karol quashed a Covid-time notification, issued with the object of speeding up road infrastructure to provide sustenance to daily wagers who had lost livelihood due to the pandemic. It said since all projects had come to a grinding halt at that time, there was no hurry for govt to dispense with an
important environment protection norm.

As a result of the judgment, any digging for extracting earth and soil for laying roads, pipelines or similar activities for infrastructure projects would require publication of notice inviting objections from the public to the digging, followed by a public hearing and a decision by the competent authority that is liable to be challenged before a jurisdictional green tribunal.

Writing the judgment, Justice Oka said there was no need for dispensing with such a vital component for protection of the environment. “Article 21 guarantees a right to live in a pollution-free environment. The citizens have a fundamental duty to protect and improve the environment. Therefore, the participation of the citizens is very important, and it is taken care of by allowing them to raise objections to the proposed notification. After all, citizens are major stakeholders
in environmental matters. Their participation cannot be prevented.

Faulting issuance of the notification exempting linear projects from EC requirement without inviting objections from the public, the bench said, “We fail to understand the undue haste shown by central govt in issuing the impugned notification during the nationwide lockdown. Therefore, the inclusion of item 6 of the substituted Appendix-IX (exempting ‘extraction or sourcing or borrowing of ordinary earth for the linear projects such as roads, pipelines, etc’) will have to be held illegal.”

It said the object of an earlier notification mandating EC certificate for projects was to minimise the damage to the environment and when an exception is sought to be carved out, it must be specific. The bench said in the notification exempting ‘extraction or sourcing or borrowing of ordinary earth for linear projects, such as roads, pipelines, etc’ has no specification about the quantum of ordinary earth, which can be extracted based on the exemption.

“There is no specification of the area which can be used to extract ordinary earth. It is also not provided what quantity of ordinary earth, which is required to implement the linear projects, is exempted. Importantly, ‘linear projects’ have not been defined. Without the definition, it is difficult to imagine which projects will be termed linear projects. The term is very vague. The process to be adopted for excavation has not been set out. Thus, the exemption is completely unguided and blanket, which is, per se, arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution,” it said.

“There is no provision for setting up an authority which will decide whether a particular linear project is covered by the notification… we have no hesitation in striking down item 6 of the substituted Appendix-IX forming part of the impugned notification dated March 28, 2020 and item 6 of the amended impugned notification dated August 30, 2023,” the bench said.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 23 March 2024)

*Disclaimer: – Always check with the original copy of judgment from the Court website.


24 February, 2024

Weekly Legal Updates ( 18 February to 24 February 2024)

Weekly Legal Updates main objective is to update the legal knowledge of law students, lawyers, academicians and other professionals. If we do not update our legal knowledge regularly, our knowledge become redundant.

Chandigarh mayoral polls officer 'has to be prosecuted': Supreme Court's rebuke

The Supreme Court has ordered the production of the ballot papers and video of the counting of votes in Chandigarh mayoral polls by 2 pm on Tuesday. The court also rapped the Returning Officer who presided over the polls, saying that he must be prosecuted for "defacing ballot papers".

Hearing a petition alleging foul play in the mayoral election, a bench headed by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud also asked the deputy commissioner to appoint a new returning officer who was not associated with any political party.

"We are pained by the horse-trading which has happened in Chandigarh assembly," the bench said.

"This business of horse-trading should be stopped and that is why we want to see the ballot papers tomorrow itself," it added.

The BJP swept the January 30 Chandigarh mayoral polls, retaining all three posts, and defeating the Congress-AAP alliance. The AAP then moved the Supreme Court demanding fresh polls, accusing Returning Officer Anil Masih of “fraud and forgery” in the election process.

A video also went viral showing Anil Masih ticking the ballot papers while glancing at the CCTV, raising concerns about the fairness of the elections.

The Supreme Court had summoned Anil Masih to physically appear before the bench during the hearing. On Monday, the bench asked him about the video and why he was looking into the CCTV.

To this, the Masih replied that all the ballot papers were defaced and he was just marking them. "There were so many cameras that I was just looking at them," he said.

The bench then asked him why he marked the ballot papers, Anil Masih said he did it so that ballot papers did not get mixed.

"That means you marked it. He has to be prosecuted. In an electoral democracy, this cannot be allowed," the bench remarked.

(Courtesy:- India Today, 19 February 2024)

'You speak of Nari Shakti...': Supreme Court raps Centre over woman officer's plea

The Supreme Court on Monday pulled up the central government over denying consideration of a Permanent Commission (PC) to a woman officer serving in the Indian Coast Guard. The top court criticised the government's "patriarchal attitude" and questioned its vision and advocacy of 'Nari Shakti'.

A division bench led by Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud and comprising Justices JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra stressed that the Coast Guard could not be ruled out on the criterion when the Navy and Army have fallen in line with granting Permanent Commissions to women officers.

"You speak of 'Nari Shakti Nari Shakti,' now show it here. You are at the deep end of the sea here. I don't think the Coast Guard can say they can fall out of line when the Army and Navy have done it all. You all have not read the Babita Punia judgment so far," the bench remarked.

In the Babita Punia judgement, the top court had held that women Short Service Commission officers are entitled to a Permanent Commission on par with their male counterparts.

During a brief hearing on Monday, the three-judge bench headed by the CJI also said, "What is this patriarchal attitude of the Coast Guard here? Why do you not want women in the Coast Guard? Women can guard the borders; they can guard the coast too."

The bench's observations were made after Additional Solicitor General (ASG) Vikramjit Banerjee, who was appearing for the Centre, told the bench that the Coast Guard have a different stream of operations compared to other defence forces.

The bench mentioned the presence of a Permanent Commission of women in the Navy and questioned why the Coast Guard should be made an exception.

"Why be so patriarchal that you do not want to see women in the Coast Guard segment? You have women in the navy; what is so special about the Coast Guard?" questioned the CJI, adding, "We will open up the whole canvas; times are gone when we say women cannot be in the Coast Guard; women can guard the borders; women can guard the coasts as well," the bench further said.

The court's observation came while hearing a plea filed by Priyanka Tyagi, a short service appointment officer, who had been denied the opportunity to be considered for the Permanent Commission even after serving 14 years with an impeccable record.

In her plea, the woman officer said, "As of the present date, the Petitioner has the highest flying hours as per her seniority in all the forces, including male and female, i.e., 4500 hours on the Dornier Aircraft and has heroically saved more than 300 lives at sea."

Her plea further detailed how the board, which was to decide on granting a Permanent Commission to the SSA women officers in the Indian Coast Guard, was cancelled. 

(Courtesy:-India Today, 19 February 2024)

No permission for zoo, safari in forests without Court nod: Supreme Court

The Supreme Court examining the validity of amendments to the Forest (Conservation) Act on Monday held that its prior permission will be necessary for setting up any zoo or safari in a forest, and directed all states and union territories to submit information about the total forest land, as determined under a 1996 top court decision to the Centre, latest by March 31 this year.

A bench headed by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud passed the interim order while adjourning the petitions challenging the validity of the 2023 amendments to July. The order became necessary as the petitioners before the Court expressed apprehensions that the amendments, if allowed to operate, will result in de-classification of over 1.97 lakh square kilometres of forest, protected under the definition of “forest” by a top court order of December 12, 1996 in the landmark TN Godavarman case.

“We issue an interim order to the effect that any proposal for setting up a zoo or safari referred to in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, owned by government or any authority in forest area other than protected areas, shall not be finally approved save and except the final approval of this Court,” held the bench, also comprising justices JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra.

The bench further directed the Centre to issue a circular to all states and union territories directing them to comply with the 1996 ruling and require them to submit reports on identified forest land as per the Godavarman ruling within two weeks. The states and UTs were directed to do the needful before March 31. Once the reports are received, the Centre was further directed to digitise the records and publish it on the website of the ministry of environment, forests, climate change (MoEFCC) not later than April 15.

Under the amended Forest Conservation Act, the Court exempted zoo and safari from the long list of non-forestry activities, paving the way for such activities to be organised inside forests. Already, a proposal for setting up tiger safari at Jim Corbet tiger reserve in Uttarakhand has been reserved for judgment by the top court. Another proposal is in the pipeline to have an animal safari at Haryana’s Aravalli forest range against which an application has been moved in the top court.

The Court said, “Where any proposal (for zoo or safari) is sought to be implemented, the Union government or the competent authority shall move this Court.”

The order was passed in a batch of petitions filed by a group of retired Indian Forest Service officials and former bureaucrats and NGO Vanashakti, which objected to these amendments allowing wholesale abuse of forest land.

The petitioners led by senior advocate Prashanto Chandra Sen and advocate Prashant Bhushan argued that the amendment constricted the definition of forests from what was laid down in the 1996 Godavarman ruling.

They referred to the India State of Forests Report of the Forest Survey of India (FSI) and said that out of the total of 7.13 lakh sq km of forests in the country, an area of 1.97,159 sq km having tree cover (not forming part of declared forests in government records) would stand excluded from the recorded forest areas (RFA) as the amendment recognised only declared forest land while excluding the Godavarman interpretation of treating forests as per its dictionary meaning and all lands treated as forests under any law or government records.

Sen argued that when the amendments were discussed by the joint committee of Parliament, this apprehension was raised on whether the amendments would fall foul of the Court’s decision. He pointed out that the Centre made a solemn assurance to the Committee that the amendments are in compliance with Court’s directions. “The proof of the pudding is in the eating. As per the 1996 decision, all states and UTs were directed to constitute an expert committee to identify forests based on the Court’s ruling. We have applied under Right to Infromation Act to get access to these reports and we have not been supplied with any,” Sen submitted.

Additional solicitor general (ASG) Aishwarya Bhati appearing for Centre informed the Court that some states have given their state expert committee (SEC) reports as directed by the Court. “The Centre will require hand-holding from the Court to get this information from states as ultimately the Centre wants to digitise this information,” Bhati added.

The Court said, “The report of SEC is crucial for maintenance of contemporaneous record of forest land. The Union of India through MoEFCC, within a period of two weeks shall require all states and UTs to provide comprehensive record of all lands identified as forests, in pursuance of directions given in TN Godavarman ruling.” It further held, “These records shall be maintained by MoEFCC and duly digitised and made available in electronic format and be made available on its website not later than April 15, 2024.”

Under the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam 2023 which provides for an explanation on what forests are to be included as per government record, ASG said that states and UTs are required to prepare consolidated record of such lands, including forest like areas as identified by the expert committees, unclassed forest lands or community forest lands on which the Adhiniyam will be applicable.

The Court’s order said, “We clarify pending the completion of exercise by states and UTs under the Adhiniyam Rule 16, the principles which are elucidated by this Court in TN Godavarman case must continue to be observed....The MoEFCC shall, in pursuance of this interim order, issue a circular to all states and UTs to act strictly in accordance with the directions given by this Court.”

Last month, the MoEFCC had filed a detailed response defending the amendments The Godavarman decision held that ‘forest land’ as defined in Section 2 of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 would include not only forests as understood in the dictionary sense but any area recorded as forest in the Government records.

The affidavit said, “All forests, including unclassed forests, recorded in record of government, forest department, local bodies, or authorities will also attract provisions of the Act...It is emphasised that the provisions of the Amended Act, in no way, will dilute the directions contained in the order of December 12, 1996 passed by Supreme Court. On the contrary, it will consolidate and codify the law relating to forests in the country.”

The petitions also questioned the inclusion of zoos and safaris under non-forestry activities and other exemptions such as setting up of security infrastructure and projects of strategic importance near border areas from forest land.

On the above issues, the Centre’s affidavit said, “Such zoos and safaris are generally created in the proximity of habitation to ensure minimum disturbance to the pristine forest ecosystem. Such activities will not only sensitise and generate awareness about the importance of protection and conservation of forest land and wildlife, but will also add to the livelihood sources of local community, thereby providing them opportunities to connect with mainstream of development.”

The Centre defended exemptions under the Act for setting up security infrastructure by pointing out that security-related infrastructure, linear strategic projects along border and left-wing extremist districts are not “blanket exemptions” and will include specific projects of strategic importance or national security as “identified by Central government”.

The first petition challenging the amended Act filed by a group of 13 retired bureaucrats was entertained by the Court in October last year. They argued that permitting commercial activity in forests with the creation of permanent structures, access roads, power transmission lines and other supporting infrastructure for zoos and safaris will “sound the death knell of forests in India.” The petition further said, “Each diversion of land, without any cumulative ceiling being prescribed across the country, will pockmark our forests with cancerously growing deforested islands and fragment them, causing enormous ecological loss.”

The Forest Act amendments received Presidential assent on August 4 last year.

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 19 February 2024)

Supreme Court orders govt to pay Rs 60 lakh to military officer sacked after marriage

In a significant ruling, the Supreme Court has directed the Centre to pay Rs 60 lakh to Lt. Selina John, a former permanent commissioned officer from the Military Nursing Service (MNS), who was relieved of her duties in 1988 due to her marriage. The court emphasized that any law or regulation that considers marriage and domestic responsibilities as grounds for termination is unconstitutional, a TOI report stated.

The apex court's decision came during the hearing of an appeal filed by the Centre challenging an order from the Armed Forces Tribunal, which had called for Lt. Selina John's reinstatement.
The bench comprising Justices Sanjiv Khanna and Dipankar Datta concluded the 26-year legal battle of Lt. Selina John by directing the Centre to pay her Rs 60 lakh as a full and final settlement. Her dismissal from service in 1988 was based on Army Instruction No. 61 of 1977, which was later withdrawn in 1995.

Rejecting the patriarchal notion behind such rules, the court stated, "Acceptance of such a patriarchal rule undermines human dignity and right to non-discrimination."

Furthermore, the court highlighted the discriminatory nature of rules that consider marital status as a disqualifying factor for women employees. It reiterated that laws based on gender bias are constitutionally impermissible.

Lt. Selina John's journey in the MNS began in 1982 when she was selected according to the service's rules. She was commissioned as a Lieutenant in 1985 and served at the Military Hospital in Secunderabad until her release in 1988 following her marriage to an Army officer.

Upon her termination, Lt. Selina John pursued legal recourse, starting with a petition in the Allahabad High Court, which directed her to approach the Armed Forces Tribunal. In 2016, the AFT, Lucknow, ruled in her favor, ordering the Centre to reinstate her. However, the government appealed to the Supreme Court, leading to the recent judgment.

(Courtesy:- The Economic Times, 21 February 2024)

Your lost iPhone is your responsibility, not Apple’s, rules Supreme Court

The Supreme Court of India has ruled that Apple India is not obligated to track stolen iPhones using their unique identity numbers. According to a report by Live Law, this decision overturns an earlier directive by the Odisha State Consumer Commission, which had placed this responsibility on Apple.
As per the report, a consumer in Odisha had purchased an iPhone with theft insurance and reported it stolen to both the police and Apple India. The consumer expected Apple to take action and track the device but Apple wasn’t obligated to do that. The consumer filed a complaint, leading to a District Consumer Forum ruling in their favour. However, the District Consumer Forum’s decision was appealed by Apple.
In its ruling, the Consumer Forum said that, as the manufacturer, Apple was obligated to use the phone's unique identifier to track its location. However, Apple argued against being forced to act as a law enforcement agency and appealed to the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court, acknowledging Apple's compensation to the consumer, ultimately sided with the company. The court stated that requiring them to track stolen phones was an “unwarranted observation” and not a part of their responsibility. The apex court ordered the removal of the contentious paragraph from the State Commission's order, clarifying the limits of corporations' obligations in such situations.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 22 February 2024)

States must work with ED in its probe: SC to Tamil Nadu

Supreme Court on Friday said state govt officials should cooperate with Enforcement Directorate in its probe in money laundering cases and questioned the Madras high court order staying ED’s summonses to five district collectors of Tamil Nadu in illegal sand mining cases.The observation could have implications for cases being probed by the agency in opposition-governed states.

At the outset of hearing, a bench of Justices Bela M Trivedi and Pankaj Mithal said, “How can the state file this writ petition? Under which law... You satisfy us on how the state is interested and how it can file this writ petition against Enforcement Directorate. How is the state aggrieved?” ED filed a petition against TN in SC, the other side pointed out.

Tamil Nadu government was bound to protect its officials from “illegal“ Enforcement Directorate (ED) probe, the state told Supreme Court on Friday as the court said the state must cooperate with the agency in its probe into money laundering.

ED summoned Vellore, Tiruchirappalli, Karur, Thanjavur and Ariyalur district collectors on Nov 17, but Tamil Nadu govt, along with the aggrieved bureaucrats, filed writ petitions in Madras high court (HC) alleging violation of their fundamental rights by ED. HC had stayed the summonses.
ED moved SC against the HC order that held that the agency was venturing “into a fishing expedition to find out whether information and evidence collected from the district administration can be processed further from other sources to find out commission of scheduled offence” so that it may then identify the proceeds of crime that will help them proceed under PMLA. Senior advocates Mukul Rohatgi and Amit Anand Tiwari, appearing for the state and the officers, said while petitions filed by the officers were maintainable as they were the aggrieved party, the state was also bound to protect its officials from “illegal” probe.

The SC bench was about to stay the HC order, but it deferred the hearing for Feb 26 after Rohatgi pleaded for time to clear the preliminary objection raised by the bench by placing before it details of writ petitions filed by ED against the state. He also said there was no predicate offence in the case for ED to start probe and HC was right in staying the summonses.

Additional solicitor general S V Raju, appearing for ED, told SC that the district collectors were not among the accused in the case and were summoned only as witnesses.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 24 February 2023)

*Disclaimer: – Always check with the original copy of judgment from the Court website.

05 January, 2024

Weekly Legal Updates ( 10 December to 16 December 2023)

Weekly Legal Updates main objective is to update the legal knowledge of law students, lawyers, academicians and other professionals. If we do not update our legal knowledge regularly, our knowledge become redundant.

Article 370 abrogation in J-K constitutionally valid: Supreme Court backs Centre in landmark verdict

The Supreme Court on Monday upheld the Centre's decision to abrogate Article 370, which granted special status to the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir. The Supreme Court also directed the Election Commission of India to hold Jammu and Kashmir assembly elections by September 30, 2024.

Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud, writing the judgment for himself and Justices Gavai and Surya Kant, said Article 370 of the Constitution was a temporary provision and the president has the power to revoke it. 

The Supreme Court ruling can be seen as a big boost for Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the Bharatiya Janata Party ahead of the 2024 Lok Sabha elections. Jammu and Kashmir lost its special status in August 2019 under Article 370 of the Constitution, months after the BJP won elections by a landslide and the prime minister made good on a key election pledge.

The Supreme Court was hearing petitions challenging a series of legislative and executive orders to scrap the special status of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir and split it into union territories, including Ladakh. Since then, the Jammu and Kashmir administration had restricted the movement of people, curbed internet connectivity and arrested local political leaders.

CJI Chandrachud reading out the judgment said every decision taken by the Centre on behalf of a state under proclamation can't be subject to a legal challenge and it will lead to the administration of the state to a standstill.

The Supreme Court said it has held that Article 370 was a temporary provision.

" The proclamation of Maharaja stated that the Constitution of India will supersede. With this, the para of Instrument of Accession ceases to exist....Article 370 was an interim arrangement due to war conditions in the State. Textual reading also indicates that Article 370 is a temporary provision," the court said.

The court also mentioned that the argument of petitioners that the Union government cannot take actions of irreversible consequences in the state during Presidential rule is not acceptable.

"We have held that the state of Jammu and Kashmir did not retain an element of sovereignty when it joined the Union of India. We have arrived at this conclusion for the following reasons. First paragraph eight of the instrument of acession executed by Maharaja Hari Singh provided that nothing in the instrument would affect the continuance of the sovereignty of the Maharaja in and over the state," CJI Chandrachud said.

The CJI further noted that on November 25, 1949, a proclamation was issued for the State of Jammu and Kashmir by "Yuvraj Karan Singh".

"The declaration on this proclamation, that the Constitution of India would not only supersede all other constitutional provisions in the state, which were inconsistent with it, but also abrogate them, achieves what could have been attained by an agreement of merger. With the issuance of the proclamation, paragraph of the instrument of acession ceases to be of legal consequence. The proclamation reflects the full and final surrender of sovereignty by Jammu and Kashmir through its sovereign ruler to India " the CJI added.

The Supreme Court said, "The declaration issued by the President exercises the power and clause 3 of Article 370 is a culmination of the process of integration. Thus, we do not find that the President's exercise of power under Clause 3 of Article 370 was malafide. We hold the exercise of Presidential Power to be valid."

The court also noted that Article 370 was meant for the Constitutional integration of Jammu and Kashmir with the Union and it was not for disintegration and the President can declare that Article 370 ceases to exist.

"Concurrence of the State government was not required to apply all provisions of the Constitution using Article 370(1)(d). So, the President of India taking the concurrence of the Union government was not malafide," the court noted.

On September 5, the top court had reserved its verdict after hearing the arguments for 16 days. The Centre had defended its decision to abrogate Article 370, saying there was no "constitutional fraud" in repealing the provision that accorded special status to the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Attorney General R Venkataramani and Solicitor General Tushar Mehta appeared for Centre.

Senior advocate Kapil Sibal, appearing on behalf of the petitioners, had opened the arguments, saying Article 370 was no longer a "temporary provision" and had assumed permanence post the dissolution of the Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 11 December 2023)

Seven-judge bench overrules SC’s judgment on stamping of arbitration agreement

A seven-judge Constitution bench on Wednesday overruled the Supreme Court’s judgment in April, which held that an arbitration clause is void and not enforceable in law if the agreement is unstamped or insufficiently stamped.

By 3:2, the majority verdict in April said that a court could go into the aspects of stamping and other compliances before the arbitrator is appointed. This judgment in the NN Global case triggered concerns over delays in the appointment of arbitrators by adding one more layer of scrutiny, besides being seen as contrary to India’s pro-arbitration stance.

Setting aside the verdict, the larger bench, led by Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, on Wednesday declared that agreements that are not stamped or insufficiently stamped are not rendered void or void ab initio or unenforceable if arbitration agreement prima facie exists between parties.

Although an unstamped or insufficiently stamped agreement is inadmissible in evidence under the Stamp Act, the bench added in its unanimous judgment, it is a curable defect in the law, and therefore, non-stamping or improper stamping does not result in the instrument becoming invalid.

The bench, which also comprised justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul, Sanjiv Khanna, Bhushan R Gavai, Surya Kant, JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, clarified that objection as to stamping does not fall for determinations under sections 8 or 11 of the Arbitration Act when a court has to refer parties to an arbitral tribunal. “The concerned court must examine whether the arbitration agreement prima facie exists. Any objections in relation to the stamping of the agreement fall within the ambit of the arbitral tribunal.”

Experts welcomed the verdict. “It is a landmark verdict that will boost the arbitration ecosystem of India. By removing the cloud over the uncertainty that the previous judgment had ushered in, today’s judgment has not only upheld the legislative intent of the Arbitration Act but also the salutary doctrines of party autonomy, separability as well as the doctrine of kompetenz by approving arbitrators’ power to decide upon their jurisdiction,” said Kunal Vajani, joint managing partner at law firm Fox & Mandal. Vajani is also a Court Member (India), the International Court of Arbitration.

Alipak Banerjee, leader, International Dispute Resolution and Investigations Practice at the Nishith Desai Associates emphasised that the Wednesday ruling will promote India as an international arbitration hub. “The April judgment caused confusion and uncertainty. Several matters where arbitration had been invoked and proceedings were underway hit a roadblock as the parties were being directed to regularise the agreement by paying the deficit stamp duty while the stamp collector had lack of guidance on how to deal with such agreements. Now, the issue stands settled.”

In its judgment on Wednesday, the court underscored that the Arbitration Act is a special law and that one of its objectives was to minimise the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process. “Courts may only examine whether an arbitration agreement exists on the basis of a prima facie standard of review. The nature of objections to the jurisdiction of an arbitral tribunal on the basis that stamp duty has not been paid cannot be decided on a prima facie basis,” said the bench. It added any such scrutiny by courts at the threshold will defeat the legislative intent underlying the Arbitration Act.

Citing the relevant provisions of the Stamp Act, the court pointed out the statute characterises non-payment of stamp duty as a curable defect. “The Stamp Act itself provides for the manner in which the defect may be cured and sets out the detailed procedure for it. It bears mentioning that there is no procedure by which a void agreement can be cured.”

The seven-judge bench noted that its judgment does not allow the law to be flouted because the arbitral tribunal continues to be bound by the provision of the Stamp Act, including those relating to its impounding and admissibility, and challenges to the position and jurisdiction of arbitrators.

It delivered its ruling on a curative petition moved against the April judgment. The issue was referred to the larger bench by the top court on September 26, citing the “limitless uncertainty in the area of arbitration” triggered by its previous ruling.

The April judgment came while deciding a bundle of judgments since 2011, taking divergent views on the enforceability of arbitration clauses contained in unstamped or insufficiently stamped agreements. This judgment, by 3:2 majority, relied on the 1899 Indian Stamps Act that required certain agreements to be compulsorily registrable or chargeable to stamp duty when it held that a court could go into the aspects of stamping and other compliances before the arbitrator is appointed.

According to the majority view, a court is bound to examine the instrument at a pre-appointment stage, and if it is found to be unstamped or insufficiently stamped, the instrument is to be impounded at that stage, declaring the arbitration agreement to be void.

The two other judges on the bench, comprising the minority, flagged concerns that the view taken by the majority in the judgment has the propensity of frustrating the objective of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, as scrutiny on the stamp duty at the threshold can stall the process and will lead to procedural complexity and delay in litigation before courts.

The judgment in the curative plea was reserved on October 12 with the bench expressing its doubt on the correctness of the April ruling. At the time, the seven-judge bench observed that stamping has nothing to do with the validity of an agreement, adding that provisions of the Contract Act will make it clear that any lacuna in the stamping of an agreement does not render the document invalid but can only impact its admissibility as evidence and consequently, its enforceability.

During the proceedings in October, the court clarified that its scope of reviewing the matter will confine to the stage and the correct forum for deciding the validity and enforceability of an arbitration agreement

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 13 December 2023)

Supreme Court says being a nominee in share doesn't grant inheritance rights

The Supreme Court has ruled that ownership of financial instruments like shares and debenture certificates should pass to the successor through legal or testamentary means, rather than to the nominee.

In a December 14 judgment, a bench of justices Hrishikesh Roy and Sanjay Karol said being a nominee in a share/debenture certificate doesn't automatically grant inheritance rights. The ownership of these instruments is decided by the deceased's will or succession laws in India, which may include the Hindu Succession Act or the Indian Succession Act, Moneycontrol reported.

The court decision came in a family disagreement, where the father granted shares and debentures to one son in his will. The other son, listed as the nominee in the documents, opposed this decision, claiming his ownership as the beneficial owner based on his nominee status.

The court said the ownership of shares and debentures relies on the deceased's will or succession laws. The Companies Act of 1956 and 2013 intend nominees to assist in transferring shares, not to become successors, the ruling said.

The ruling, thus, made clear that a nominee isn't the actual owner of the asset but holds it in a fiduciary role for the benefit of legal heirs, determined by a will or relevant succession laws.

A nominee is a temporary custodian appointed by the asset owner until succeeded by legal heirs, without absolute title to the asset.

The rights of a nominee are subordinate to those of a beneficiary under a will, with the will taking precedence over nomination.

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 15 December 2023)

Supreme Court issues directions for places of worship in Manipur

The Supreme Court on Friday put its focus on the restoration of places of worship in Manipur, which has been overrun by ethnic violence between the Meitei and Kuki communities since early May, directing a high-powered committee of retired judges to frame a proposal for the identification and rebuilding of such places that were burnt down or razed during the riots.

A bench, led by Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, ordered the Manipur government to furnish to the committee within two weeks a comprehensive list of identification of the places of worship that were burnt down, destroyed or encroached upon during the mayhem in the northeastern state that has so far claimed at least 175 lives.

Cognisant that the pleas before it claimed the destruction of churches as well as temples during the violence, the court made it clear that the identification would cover places of worship across all religious denominations.

The bench, which also comprised justices JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, added the state authorities shall also apprise the judges’ committee, headed by former J&K high court chief justice Gita Mittal, of the steps being taken to protect such places of worship from further dangers and encroachment, as well the current state policy of restoration.

“Based on the response, the committee should frame a proposal for the way forward, including restoration of such religious places. We clarify the committee will take a comprehensive view, including dealing with supervening circumstances and encroachment and occupation of such places,” it added.

“The next report shall have recommendations which will be taken into account while issuing orders of this court on the next date of the hearing,” the bench said.

The top court also took note that it will be on a winter break for the next 15 days, further recording in its order that the state government and the DGP will co-ordinate with the committee so that interim orders of the committee could be implemented without further delays.

During the hearing, the bench also recorded an assurance of solicitor general Tushar Mehta and additional solicitor general Aishwarya Bhati that necessary steps will be taken to ensure that persons housed in relief camps due to the riots in the state, are able to attend ceremonies and prayers on the occasion of Christmas.

The assurance was recorded after senior advocate Huzefa Ahmadi, representing the Meitei Christian Churches Council, requested that there should be some place where people in the sState could congregate to celebrate Christmas and observe other religious observances.

S-G Mehta, however, raised concerns saying congregation of a community at this time may pose law and problems. At this, the bench refrained from passing any order and only recorded the law officers’ assurance.

During the hearing, the court also directed the Manipur government to bring out a proposal or response regarding the rehabilitation of those whose homes were destroyed in the violence. “The proposal be also kept in front of the Committee for recommendations in this regard,” it added.

The court, while hearing a clutch of petitions relating to the ethnic strife in Manipur, had in August set up the committee of retired judges, comprising justices Mittal, Shalini P Joshi (former Bombay high court judge) and Asha Menon (former Delhi high court judge), on the efficacy of rescue, relief and rehabilitation measures.

(Courtesy:- Hindustan Times, 16 December 2023)

Over 5 crore court cases pending, government tells Lok Sabha

Over 10,000 cases were added to the Supreme Court's pendency list in the last five months, which has increased from 69,766 cases as on July 1 to 80,040 on December 1. It had taken three years previously, from March 2020 to July 2023, to add 10,000 cases to the SC pendency.

Law minister Arjun Ram Meghwal told Lok Sabha on Friday that the 25 high courts had more than 61.7 lakh cases pending while district and subordinate courts had over 4.4 crore cases, taking the total pendency in all courts in the country to over 5 crore cases. "Assignment of cases to judges and their disposal lies within the exclusive domain of the judiciary. The central government has no direct role in the matter," Meghwal said, responding to a member's query. He said the government has been making constant efforts to provide an ecosystem for faster and efficient disposal of cases by the judiciary.

The number of court halls has increased from 15,818 as of June 2014 to 21,507 as of November 2023 and residential units increased from 10,211 to 18,882. Over the past decade, all courtrooms are digitally connected, besides substantial increase in the sanctioned and working strength of the judiciary.

(Courtesy:- The Times of India, 16 December 2023)

23 May, 2021

Treason case: Supreme Court grants bail to YSR Congress rebel MP Ramakrishna


Raghu Ramakrishna Raju is a Lok Sabha MP from Narasapuram parliamentary constituency in Andhra Pradesh. It is alleged that he is involved in acts of spreading hatred in communities with hate speeches and promoting dissatisfaction against the government.

The Supreme Court on Friday granted bail to the rebel MP of YSR Congress, K Raghu Ramakrishna Raju, who was arrested by the Andhra Pradesh Police in a sedition case registered against him. A vacation bench of Justice Vineet Saran and Justice BR Gavai referred to receiving Raju's medical report from the Army Hospital in Secunderabad, saying that there could be no denial that the MP in custody was ‘ill-treated’.

The court imposed several bail conditions on Raju, including that he would not give any statement to the media regarding the case. On May 17, the court ordered MP Raju to be transferred to the Army Hospital in Secunderabad in the immediate neighboring state of Telangana for medical examination and to keep him admitted there until further orders.

Raju is a Lok Sabha MP from Narasapuram parliamentary constituency in Andhra Pradesh. He has alleged that the State Police has registered a case of sedition against him 'due to political vendetta' as he has been criticizing the 'actions of his own party'. The bench also directed him to cooperate in the investigation while granting him bail.

Senior advocate Mukul Rohatgi, who appeared on behalf of Raju during the hearing through video conference, said that the detained MP was 'tortured', causing injuries to him. The bench initially said that the report from the army hospital said It has been said that Raju has a fracture in his toe. Rohatgi argued that his accusation of torture is proved by the medical report.

He said, ‘They are doing this with an MP. Please give them bail and the case of harassment should be investigated by the CBI’. Arguing that no sedition case is made against the leader, Rohatgi said that Raju is a sitting MP of the party and he has also been a critic of the state government and the Chief Minister. Senior advocate Dushyant Dave, appearing for the state, said that Rohatgi should not make a statement against the chief minister as he is not a party to the case.

Dave argued that Raju's plea seeking bail should be dismissed. Referring to his statements, Dave said that a case of treason is made. Regarding the medical report, he said that Raju was medically examined on 16 May and there is also an X-ray report in which there is no injury or fracture.

The bench was hearing two appeals. One of these was that of Raju, which he filed against the order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court, in which the court rejected his bail and asked him to go to the appropriate forum for relief. In the second appeal, his son K. Bharata has requested for a medical examination of Raju from a private hospital.

The CID, which arrested Raju on various charges including treason on May 15, has also accused two media houses and “others” in the case. According to the FIR, he has been charged under sections 124A, 153A, 505 and 120B (conspiracy) of the Indian Penal Code for alleged offenses.

The CID has registered the case on its own and alleged, “Raju has not confined himself to impartial criticism of the government, but has made every effort to incite hatred, contempt towards her. Not only did he do this through his words, but he also used facial and hand gestures to incite his supporters to commit violence. His nature is seditious.”

The CID also alleged that the MP specifically targeted two communities and tried to show that the government was favoring both, while trying to spread hatred against them.

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Dr. Deepak Miglani

Email id:- legalbuddy@gmail.com