Legal Point: Solved Question Paper of Uttar Pradesh A.P.O. Examination, 2006

Uttar Pradesh A.P.O. Examination, 2006

Part-I

General Knowledge

1. Who among the following ordered that a men should marry only one wife and could marry another if she was barren?

(A) Humayun (B) Sher Shah

Ans. (c)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I List-II

(Event) (Year)

A. Birth of Akbar 1. 1191

B. Taimur’s invasion 2. 1398

C. Battle of Talikota 3. 1542

D. First battle of Tarain 4. 1565

Code:

A B C D

(A) 3 2 4 1

(B) 3 1 4 2

(D) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (a)

3. The real aim of Lord Curzon to partition Bengal was

A. to create a Muslim majority province

B. to help the economic development of East Bengal

C. to weaken the forces of nationalism in Bengal

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

4. When Gandhiji was arrested during salt-satyagraha, who took his place as the leader of the movement?

A. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Sardar Patel

C. Abul Kalam Azad

D. Abbas Tayabji

Ans. (d)

5. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?

A. Agha Khan

B. Ajmal Khan

C. Hasan Imam

D. Mohammad Ali Jinnah

Ans. (d)

6. Samnyasi revolt broke out in

(A) Avadh (B) Bengal

Ans. (b)

7. Which of the following occurred in Maharashtra?

(A) Bhil uprising (B) Kol uprising

Ans. (a)

8. The taluqedars of which of the following regions revolted against the British rule during the period from 1814 to 1817?

(A) Aligarh (B) Avadh

Ans. (a)

9. The Paramahansa Mandali was a reformist organisation of

(A) Maharashtra (B) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (a)

10. Which of the following organisations aimed at uprooting the colonial power through armend revolution and establishment of United States of India?

A. Indian Association

B. Hindustan Republic Association

C. Bombay British Association

D. Madras Native Association

Ans. (b)

11. Who among the following lady revolutionaries fired at the Governor while receiving degree in the convocation of 1932?

A. Priti Lata Vadedar

B. Kalpana Datta

C. Shanti Ghosh

D. Bina Das

Ans. (d)

12. Who said "Education is the best contraceptive for population stabilisation"?

A. Dr. Man Mohan Singh

B. Sam Pitroda

C. Som Nath Chatterjee

D. Pranab Mukherjee

Ans. (c)

13. Which one of the following statements is not true?

A. Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission of India

B. Planning Commission is the highest decision making body for planning in India

C. Secretary of the Planning Commission is also the Secretary of the National Development Council

D. The National Development Council is presided over by the Prime Minister of India

Ans. (b)

14. A Gram Pradhan in U.P. is elected:

A. by all the adults living in the territory of the Panchayat.

B. by all the voters included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayat’s territory.

C. by members of the Gram Panchayat.

D. from amongst the voters of the Panchayat’s territory

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

15. The maximum number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are

(A) 3 (B) 2

Ans. (b)

16. Indian Parliament consists of

A. Lok Sabha and Rajya sabha

B. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister

C. Speaker and Lok Sabha

D. President and both the Housed of Parliament

Ans. (d)

17. Which one of the following is not a measure of Globalisation?

A. Disinvestment of the Public Sector Undertakings

B. Reduction of import duty

C. Making rupee convertible

D. Allowing free flow of Foreign Direct Investment

Ans. (a)

18. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A.	Cold Arid Zone	Ladakh
B.	Wet humid zone	Northern India
C.	Tropical Monsoon Zone	Central India
D.	Warm arid Zone	Rajasthan

Ans. (b)

19. The Dandakaranya Project covers the parts of: (A) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and An Pradesh

A. Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh

B. Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa

C. Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh Orissa

D. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (c)

20. The most urbanised state of India is

(A) Gujarat (B) Mahar

Ans. (c)

21. The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are

A. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

B. Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra

C. Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra

D. Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka and Maharashtra

Ans. (a)

22. As per 2001 census, which is the populous state after Uttar Pradesh?

(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Bihar

Ans. (c)

23. Consider the following statements Atlantic Ocean and choose which one. correct:

A. It is the World's Second Largest

B. It covers nearly 30 per cent of earth

C. It spreads from Arctic Ocean in North to Antarctica in the South

D. It is the saltiest Ocean

Ans. (b)

24. Acid rain is caused by

A. reaction between water of clouds and sulphur dioxide pollutant

B. reaction between rain water and carbon dioxide pollutant.

C. cooling of acid vapours reaching the clouds

D. reaction between water vapour and electric charge lightening and cloud bursts

Ans. (a)

25. Which medium is used by “Radar’ to trace aeroplanes?

(A) Micro wave (B) Electric wave

Ans. (a)

26. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Stem cell research has become very important in view of the multipotent capacity of stem cells.

Reason ®: Stem cells can develop into a complete foetus.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Ans. (c)

27. The weight of an object would be minimum when it is placed

A. At the North Pole

B. At the South Pole

C. At the Equator

D. At the centre of the Earth

Ans. (d)

28. Platelets are found in

(A) Lymph (B) Blood

Ans. (b)

29. What substance is used to correct acidic soils?

A. Lime

B. Calcium superphosphate

C. Gypsum

D. Compost manure

Ans. (c)

30. An aeroplane rises because

A. of the upward reaction of air

B. the density of air above the plane is less than that below it

C. the pressure above its wings is less than the pressure below them

D. its nose points upwards

Ans. (c)

31. The ball released from and artificial satellite moving around the earth will

A. go to the sun

B. go to the moon

C. fall on the earth

D. move in the same orbit

Ans. (d)

32. If the linear momentum of a particle is doubled, its kinetic energy will

A. also be doubled

B. be quadrupled

C. remain unchanged

D. be halved

Ans. (b)

33. How is deuterium oxide commonly known?

A. soft water

B. hard water

C. heavy water

D. crystalline water

Ans. (c)

34. Which one of the following countries does not possess cryogenic engine technology?

(A) U.S.A. (B) Russia

Ans. (d)

35. PEHUENSAT-I is one of the four satellites launched through PSLV-C7 on 10.1.07 by India.

To which country this satellite belongs?

(A) Brazil (B) Argentina

Ans. (b)

36. Any damage to eye by direct viewing of total solar eclipse is caused by

A. "New" rays of the sun

B. Intense brightness of the sun margin

C. The presence of the moon before the sun

D. The ultraviolet rays of the sun

Ans. (d)

37. 'Which among the following is the least populated country in the world?

(A) St. Kitts (B) Monaco

Ans. (d)

38. Who among the following got the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2006?

A. Parimarjan Negi

B. Jeev Milkha

C. Pankaj Advani

D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

Ans. (c)

39. In 2006 Gandhi International Peace Prize was awarded to

(A) Kiran Desai (B) Ruth Manorama

Ans. (c)

40. In 2006 Nobel Prize for Literature has been awarded to Orhan Pamuk. He is a citizen of

(A) Italy (B) Turkey

Ans. (b)

41. The Prime Minister presented the 21 st Indira Gandhi Prize for National Integration to

(A) Mahesh Bhatt (B) Barkha Datt

Ans. (c)

42. Who of the following had been selected for 2006 Ramon Magsaysay Award in the emergent leadership category?

A. Kiran Bedi

B. Kiran Desai

C. Arvind Kejriwal

D. Vinda Karandikar

Ans. (c)

43. Who of the following had been selected for the 14th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award in 2006?

A. Mahesh Bhatt

B. Arundhati Roy

C. Nirmala Desphpande

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

44. The Indo-Roman trade is indicated in

A. The Ramayana

B. The Manusmriti

C. Divyavadan

D. The Sangam literature

Ans. (d)

45. Which of the following is the oldest dynasty?

(A) Chalukyas (B) Cholas

Ans. (d)

46. In the history of India, who among the following is famous for the policy of market control?

(A) Balban (B) Akbar

Ans. (d)

47. In Mauryan Administration, the official "Rupadarshak" was responsible for

A. Maintenance of the harem

B. Propagation of .Dharma

C. Examination of the coins

D. Supervision of the artisans

Ans. (c)

48. Which of the following statements defines the term "drain theory" as propounded by Dadabhai Nauroji?

A. That the resources of the country were being utilized in the interest of Britain.

B. That is a part of India’s national wealth or total annual product was being exported to Britain for which India under gets no material returns.

C. That the British Industrialists were given an opportunity to invest in India under the protection of the Imperial power.

D. That the British good were being imported to the country making it poorer day by day.

Ans. (b)

49. At least some parts of Afghanistan were included in the kingdom of

A. Mahapadmananda

B. Asoka

C. Samudragupta

D. Harsa

Ans. (b)

50. Who among the following founded the Vikramasila Mahavihara a great centre of education?

A. Baladitya

B. Gopala

C. Harsa

D. Dharmapala

Ans. (d)

Part-II

Law

51. A in good faith accuses Z before a Magistrate:

A. A has committed no offence

B. A has committed the offence of defamation

C. A has committed the offence of defamation but he can take defence u/s 93 of I.P.C.

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

52. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of" is punishable under which section of I.P.C.?

(A) Section 228 (B) Section 228-A

Ans. (b)

53. Which one of the following is an iIIustration of criminal attempt?

A. 'A' tries to kill 'B' by witchcraft

B. 'A' goes to Mumbai to buy dye tom counterfeit currency notes

C. 'A' intending to kill 'B' fires at 'B's coat hanging in his room treating it 'B'

D. 'A' takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else

Ans. (c)

54. When a criminal cat is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each one of them is liable

A. for an attempt to commit the act

B. for the abetment of act

C. only for the part each one has done

D. as if it was done by each one of them in singular capacity

Ans. (d)

55. "Death sentence should be awarded in rarest of rare cases" was held in .

A. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

B. Rameshwar v. State of U.P.

C. T.V. Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu

D. State of V.P. v. M.K. Anthony

Ans. (a)

56. Right to live with human dignity does not include right to terminate natural life, “was held in

A. P. Rathinam v. Union of India

B. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

C. Rajendra Prasad v. State of U.P.

D. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab

Ans. (b)

57. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance of common object will constitute the offence of

A. Unlawful assembly

B. Assault

C. Affray

D. Rioting

Ans. (d)

58. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed

A. when the offender is acting in anger

B. when the offender is acting under the spell of madness

C. with the consent of the victim, who has completed 18 years of age

D. with the consent of the victim who has completed 12 years of age

Ans. (c)

59. An employer deducts a certain percentage from the salary of his employees telling that it is their contribution to the 'provident fund but fails to credit it in the fund. Employer commits

A. criminal misappropriation

B. criminal breach of trust

C. theft

D. cheating

Ans. (b)

60. Under section 498-A of I.P.C. cruelty includes

A. Physical cruelty only

B. Mental cruelty only

C. Harassment of the woman

D. Cruelty by wife.

Ans. (c)

61. 'A' was on his journey by car from Delhi to Agra. '8' met him in the way and requested for a lift up to Mathura, an intermediate town. 'A' acceded to his request, but on reaching Mathura, did not drop '8' there in spite of his repeated requests. 'B' was carried over to Agra against his wishes.

A. 'A' is not guilty of any offence

B. 'A' is guilty of offence of abduction

C. 'A' is guilty of offence of wrongful confinement

D. 'A' is guilty of using criminal force

Ans. (c)

62. 'A' a school teacher for the purposes of enforcing discipline inflicts moderate punishment upon a pupil aged about 11 years. In this case

A. 'A' is entitled to claim defence under section 89 of I.P.C.

B. 'A' is guilty of causing simple hurt

C. 'A' is guilty of using criminal force

D. A is entitled to claim defence under section 88 of I.P.C.

Ans. (a)

63. A's illegal marriage with B was performed by a priest 'P' knowing that the marriage was illegal; because 'A' was already married. A's father 'C' and two other persons 'D' and 'N' were present at the time of marriage. In this case

A. 'C', 'D' and 'N' are liable for abetment

B. Only A's father 'C' is liable for abetment

C. 'C', 'D', 'N' and the priest 'P' all are guilty of abetment

D. Only the priest 'P' is liable for abetting the offence of bigamy

Ans. (d)

64. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?

A. K.M. Nanawati v. State of Maharashtra Grave and sudden provocation

B. State of Himachal Pradesh v. Asha Ram Rape

C. Karan Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh Right of Private Defence

D. Harjit Singh v. State of Punjab Dowry death

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code

(A) I, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

65. The punishment for general form of Public Nuisance is provided in

A. Section 268 of I.P.C

B. Section 269 of I.P.C

C. Section 290 of I.P.C

D. Section 291 of I.P.C

Ans. (c)

66. On account of an agitation the lawyers ceased to participate in court proceedings and resorted to 'Satyagrah'. An editorial in a newspaper criticised as to whether it behoves to the lawyers as a class to resort to strike. The lawyers were inter-alia described as" Kajia dalal" i.e. dispute broker, in the editorial

A. Editor of the newspaper is guilty of offence of defamation

B. Editor of the newspaper is not guilty of offence of defamation

C. Not only editor, but Chairman of-Board of Directors and its General Manager are also guilty of defamation

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

67. According to Mc naughten's Rule, legal insanity is quite different from medical insanity. It relates to the

A. total loss of conative faculties

B. total loss of cognitive faculties

C. congenital insanity

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

68. For the defence of mistake of fact under the Indian Penal Code

A. actual mistake is sufficient

B. the act must be reasonable

C. the act must be reasonable as well as committed in good faith

D. None of the above is correct

Ans. (c)

69. In which of the following cases, the Court has observed that there is no private defence against the right of defence?

A. State of punjab v. Sohan Singh

B. Surjeet Singh v. State of Punjab

C. State of U.P. v. Ram Swaroop

D. M.R. Singh v. State of Gujrat

Ans. (c)

70. The mens rea required under Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code is

A. Intention or knowledge

B. Intention or negligence

C. Intention or recklessness

D. Negligence or malice

Ans. (a)

71. When two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act is not illegal, by illegal means, such agreement is

A. designated as a criminal conspiracy

B. designated as a criminal abetment

C. both, criminal conspiracy and abetment

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

72. 'A' incites his dog to spring upon 'B' without 'B's consent. 'A' is guilty of

A. Assault

B. Criminal intimidation

C. Criminal force

D. Grievous hurt

Ans. (c)

73. Under section 308 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an accomplice, who not comply with the, conditions of pardon, be prosecuted and tried separately for offence of giving- false evidence, but with sanction of the

A. Sessions Court

B. High Court

C. State Government

D. Chief Justice of High Court

Ans. (b)

74. Under section 77 of Cr.P.C. a warrant of arrest may be executed within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant

A. within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant

B. within the session division

C. at any place within the State

D. at any place in India

Ans. (d)

75. Under which provision of Cr. P.C. on receipt of First information Report for the commission of an offence the officer in charge of the police station will send the copy to the concerned Megistrate?

A. Under section 154 Cr.P.C.

B. Under section 159 Cr.P.C.

C. Under section 156 Cr.P.C.

D. Under section 157 Cr.P.C.

Ans. (d)

76. Non cognizable offence means an offence wherein

A. a police officer cannot arrest without warrant

B. a police officer can arrest at his discretion

C. a police officer has authority to arrest without warrant

D. on request of complainant, arrest can be made

Ans. (a)

77. Whether any criminal court can impound any document produced before it?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Only civil court can impound

D. With the consent of the senior officer it can be impounded.

Ans. (a)

78. Can a Magistrate order the search of any place in his presence, for the search of which he is empowered to issue a search warrant?

A. Yes, under section 103 Cr.P.C.

B. Yes, under section 104 Cr.P.C.

C. No

D. Yes, under section 105 Cr.P.C.

Ans. (a)

79. Summon's case means

A. a case which is not a warrant case

B. a case in which security is not required

C. a case through which offence of theft is tried

D. a case in which only summons can be served during trial

Ans. (a)

80. Which one of the following cases is related to defective investigation?

A. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

B. Zahira Habibullah Sheikh v. State of Gujarat

C. Sakshi v. Union of India

D. Dipesh Chandak v. Union of India

Ans. (b)

81. Which of the following statements is not correct, with reference to section 125 of the code of criminal procedure?

A. Section 125 cannot be used against a 'person who does not possess sufficient economic means

B. The obligation to maintain a married daughter whose husband is unemployed, is of the father of such daughter

C. A married daughter also has an obligation to maintain her parents who . are unable to maintain themselves

D. A woman who has taken divorce from her husband and has not remarried may claim maintenance from her ex-husband

Ans. (b)

82. When a case is instituted under section 199(2) of Cr.P.C., the procedure of trial adopted in such a case is

A. Session trial

B. Trial of warrant case instituted on police report

C. Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise than a police report

D. Summons trial

Ans. (a)

83. The offence committed under which section of I.P.C. is not compoundable under section 320 of Cr. P.C.

(A) Section 352 (B) Section 353

Ans. (b)

84. "The object of proceedings under section 145 Cr.P.C. is to ward-off danger of breach of peace and not to determine the title." It was observed in the case of

A. Union of India v. Ajeebunissan Khatoon

B. Nandi Ram v. Chandi Ram

C. Roshan Lal v. State

D. Ramadhin v. Shyama Devi

Ans. (a)

85. In which case, the presence of accused may be dispensed with at the time of delivering the judgement?

A. When the personal attendance of the accused has already been dispensed with

B. When the judgement is that of acquittal

C. In both (A) and (B) above

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

86. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has the power to try a summons case as a warrant case, wherein the offence to be tried thereunder is punishable with the imprisonment

A. exceeding 6 months

B. exceeding 4 months

C. exceeding 1 year

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

87. In every criminal trial, when the Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused.

A. Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence can be passed

B. Wrong, it is not required in summons case

C. It is required only before sending the conviction warrant

D. Not required at all in any case

Ans. (b)

88. The procedure for trial before a court of sessions is provided in the following sections of Cr.P.C.

(A) 260 to 265 (B) 238 to 250

Ans. (d)

89. Which of the following statements is not correct under the Code of Criminal Procedure?

A. Where a private person or an authorised person has a right to arrest a person and hand him over to the custody of police; such private person can also make search of such arrested person

B. Enquiry and trial, both are included in 'judicial proceedings'

C. Complaint may be made by any person and it is not necessary that the injured or the affected only should complain

D. Charges are framed only in warrant cases: there is no need to frame charge sheet in petty summons cases

Ans. (a)

90. Under Section 125 of the Code' of Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate

A. has the power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings

B. has no power to grant interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceedings

C. his power to grant interim maint but no power to grant expenses of proceedings

D. has no power to grant interim maintenance but has the power to expenses of the proceedings

Ans. (a)

91. Where any judge or Magistrate is pets interested in a case, he shall neither try commit for trial such case, nor shall hear appeal in such case, provided

A. prior permission of High Court has procured

B. prior permission of the Chief Justice High Court has been procured

C. prior permission of its appellate c has been obtained

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

92. In which of the following cases, it was held that provisions of chapter VIII of Cr.P.C. being in public interest are not violative of Article 19 of the Constitution of India.

A. Ram Charan v. State

B. Shiv Narain v. Ban Mali

C. Madhu Limaye v. S.D.M., Monghyr

D. Ram Prasad v. Emperor

Ans. (c)

93. By Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005, in section 459 of Cr.P.C. the words' less than ten Rupees' have been substituted the words

A. less than five hundred Rupees

B. less than fifty Rupees

C. less than one hundred Rupees

D. less than two hundred and fifty Rupees

Ans. (a)

94. When there is dispute between two courts relating to exercise of jurisdiction in a criminal matter and said courts are under subordination of different High Courts, the matter shall be decided under section 186 of Cr.P.C. by the

A. Supreme Court

B. High Court of the larger State

C. High Court having more judges

D. High Court within whose area proceedings first commenced

Ans. (d)

95. Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per section 468 of Cr.P.C. is

(A) six months (B) one year

Ans. (d)

96. The power of Magistrate to detain a person for the purposes of police investigation is for a maximum period of

(A) 15 days (B) 60 days

Ans. (c)

97. On refusal by any witness to answer a question or to produce a document upon being asked for, he may be sentenced to imprisonment for a period of

(A) 30 days (B) 7 days

Ans. (b)

98. According to which section of the Police Act 1861, a police officer may be deployed in any part of the District?

(A) 20 (B) 21

Ans. (c)

99. Under Paragraph 169 of U.P. Police Regulations, it is the duty of the Public Prosecuter to bring to the notice of the Magistrate concerned all cases in which unclaimed property has been lying in Malkhana for more than

(A) 6 months (B) 1 year

Ans. (a)

100. Paragraph 140 of U.P. Police Regulations requires that when a Police officer sends a person for examination by a medical officer.

A. He could clearly explain the object of such examination.

B. he should fix the time within which the medical examination must be completed.

C. he should send an escort along with the person to be medically examined.

D. he should take all care so that the person may not abscond.

Ans. (a)

101. What type of officer is a reserved inspector in the Reserve Line according to U.P. Police Regulations?

A. A General Officer

B. Officer in charge

C. Deputy Chief Officer

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

102. Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with the following:

A. Departmental proceedings

B. Judicial proceedings

C. A and B both

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

103. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding history sheets?

A. History sheet of class B is for a period of three years and it need not be starred

B. History sheet of class A for an active member of a gang of dacoits must be starred.

C. No history sheet should be opened for persons with no permanent residence

D. No history sheet is required to be opened for a person detained under section 109 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

Ans. (a)

104. When it shall appear that any unlawful assembly, or riot or disturbance has taken place and police force is not sufficient for preservation of peace, Special Police Officers may be appointed by

A. the Magistrate on application of Police Officer not below the rank of inspector

B. the Superintendent of Police of the District concerned.

C. the Deputy Inspector General of Police of the range.

D. The Inspector General of Police of the zone.

Ans. (a)

105. Which chapter of U.P. Police Regulations deals with Mounted Police?

(A) Chapter 5 (B) Chapter 6

Ans. (d)

106. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding case diary?

The investigating officer should note in the case diary the time and place

v A. at which he received the information on which he acts

B. at which he begins is closed

C. at which investigation is closed.

D. when he was called by the Superintendent of Police for enquiry regarding the progress of investigation.

Ans. (d)

107. Under the Police Act, 1861, the word Police includes such persons who have under the Act been

(A) enrolled (B) trained

Ans. (a)

108. Which para of U.P. Police Regulations deals with Postmortem examination and Procedure?

(A) 137 (B) 138

Ans. (c)

109. In which of the following decisions it was laid down that departmental proceedings can also be initiated against a police officer who has been held guilty under section 29 of the Police Act, 1861?

A. Asha Ram v. G.C. Saxena

B. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Harish Chandra Singh

C. Som Nath Sahu v. State

D. Arya Veer saxena v. State

Ans. (b)

110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer with the help of the code given below:

List-I List-II

(Section of Police Act)

A.	Surrender of the certificate of the police officer	1. Section 21
B.	Deployment of additional police force at rail and other works	2. Section 8
C.	Village Police Officer	3. Section 30
D.	Regulation of public assemblies and processions	4. Section 14

Code:

A B C D

A 2 1 3 4

B 2 4 1 3

C 1 2 3 4

D 3 2 4 1

Ans. (b)

111. The Public Prosecutor shall maintain at the headquater a register for the whole district containing the names only of those absconding offenders.

A. Who are Triable in the district.

B. whose names, caste, residence and antecedents have been verified beyond all possibility of doubt.

C. whose real names, residence and antecedents have not been ascertained.

D. who are non residents of the district concerned.

Ans. (a)

112. In which of the following decisions it was laid down that the accused cannot use the case diary? Neither the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they cannot claim to go through it?

A. U.P. State v. Harish Chandra Singh

B. Arya Veer Saxena v. State

C. State of Kerala v. Amini & Others

D. Mukand Lal v. Union of India.

Ans. (d)

113. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the Preamble is

A. to define and amend the law of evidence

B. to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence

C. to highlight, define and consolidates the law of evidence

D. to highlight, consolidate, defince and amend the law of evidence

Ans. (b)

114. When a number of documents are all made by one uniform process, as in the case of printing, lithography or photography, each is

A. secondary evidence of the contents of the rest

B. primary evidence of the contents of the rest

C. direct evidence of the contents of the rest

D. documentary evidence of the contents of the rest.

Ans. (b)

115. Assertion A: In criminal cases the fact that accused is of good character is relevant.

Reason R: In Criminal cases bad character of the accused is always irrelevant.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Ans. (c)

116. A marriage was solemnized in a general customary form. What is the rule for proving that it is a legal wedlock?

A. The custom shall be proved by evidence

B. The court takes judicial notice of the custom

C. The court shall evaluate the effect of custom on general public

D. All the above

Ans. (b)

117. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act contains provisions regarding cross examination of witnesses to character?

A. Section 140

B. Section 141

C. Section 142

D. Section 139

Ans. (a)

118. A confession made by an accused person is relevant.

A. if it has proceeded from a person in authority, unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

B. if it is made to a police officer, unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

C. If it is made to a Magistrate provided the police officer is present.

D. if it is made whilst he is in custody of a police officer, and is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

Ans. (d)

119. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer dog falls under

A. oral evidence

B. documentary evidence

C. hearsay evidence scientific evidence

D. scientific evidence

Ans. (d)

120. The question is, whether A committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. In answer to this question, which of the following fact is relevant?

A. That A was out that day at Mumbai

B. That A habitually goes to Kolkata

C. That A habitually commits crime

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

121. Whenever it is directed by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that the court shall presume a fact, it shall regard such fact as

A. proved, unless and until it is disproved

B. proved, unless and until it is dieproved or may call for proof of it

C. proved

D. proved and shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it

Ans. (a)

122. Who amongst the following is an accomplice?

A. A spy

B. A person giving bribe under coercion

C. A raped girl (Prosecutrix)

D. A prostitute

Ans. (d)

123. Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are

A. synonymous

B. co-extensive

C. neither synonymous nor co-extensive

D. synonymous and co-extensive, both

Ans. (c)

124. 'A' sues 'B' for trespass on his land. 'B' alleges the existence of a public right of way over the land, which 'A' defines.

A. The existence of a decree in favour of the defendant, in suit by 'A' against 'c' for a trespass on the same land in which 'c' alleged the existence of the- same right of way, is

B. relevant, but it will not operate as estoppel irrelevant, but it may be considered

C. a conclusive proof that the right of way exists

D. relevant but not a conclusive proof that the right of way exists

Ans. (d)

125. Examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him is called

A. Main examination

B. Additional examination

C. Re-examination

D. Re-cross-examination

Ans. (c)

126. Evidence of custom cannot be given to establish

A. a civil right

B. an easementary right

C. a customary right

D. a criminal right

Ans. (d)

127. The object of cross examination is

A. to examine the intelligence of the witness

B. to examine the impartiality of the witness

C. to examine the credibility of the witness

D. to examine the good character of the witness.

Ans. (c)

128. 'A' accused of murder, alleges that by grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived of the power of self-control. '8' denies this fact

A. The burden of proof must be shared by both 'A' and 'B'

B. The burden of proof is on 'B'

C. The burden of proof is on prosecution

D. The burden of proof is on 'A'

Ans. (d)

129. The father of accused did not support the prosecution during the trial that he told the witness that his son (accused) had committed the murder. The statement of the witness would be in the nature of

A. Secondary evidence

B. Hearsay evidence

C. Res gestae

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

130. A dying declaration

1. cannot form the sole basis of conviction unless corroborated.

2. is a weak kind of evidence.

1. stands on same footing as any other piece of evidence.

2. has to be subjected to a very close scrutiny for reliability.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

131. A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle, which had crushed the husband at a little distance. She had not seen the accident herself. The husband died of heart attack a day later. Can wife's evidence be taken of what the injured husband said to her after the accident?

A. Yes, it being a dying declaration

B. No, it is merely a hearsaye evidence

C. No, because it is a privileged communication

D. Yes, it being a part of res-gestae

Ans. (d)

132. If the digital signature of any subscriber alleged to have been affixed to an record the fact that such digital sig the digital signature of the subscriber be proved, except in the case of a

A. secure digital signature

B. certified digital signature

C. computerised digital signature

D. official digital signature

Ans. (a)

133. The question between 'A' and 'B' is, whether a certain deed is or is not forged. 'A' that it is genuine, '8' that it is forged

A. 'A' may prove a statement by B the deed is genuine, and 'B' may a statement by 'A' that the d forged

B. 'A' may prove a statement by the deed is forged, and 'B' may a statement by 'A' that the d genuine

C. 'A' may prove a statement by that the deed is genuine

D. 'B' may prove a statement by, that the deed is forged

Ans. (a)

134. The man who has disappeared and remained unheard of for seven years by those would have naturally heard of him, II alive; the presumption then arises that dead. What shall be the presumption time of death of such person?

A. The presumption is that the man died on the date seven years after he was last heard

B. The presumption is that the man died at the beginning of the particular during these seven years

C. Those who allege that the death be taken to have occurred at a particular time, will have to prove fact

D. The presumption is that the man died on the date of judicial pronouncement.

Ans. (c)

135. In a prosecution for rape, where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved and the woman states in her evidence before the court that she did not consent,

A. the court may presume that she did not consent

B. the court may regard her evidence as conclusive proof that she did not consent

C. the court may require further proof that she did not consent

D. the court shall presume that she did not consent

Ans. (d)

136. Confession can be result of self-talk, communication of confession to another person is not necessary, was held in the case of

A. Sankaria v. State of Rajasthan

B. Butta Singh v. State of Punjab

C. Sahoo v. State of U.P.

D. Nishikant Jha v. State of Bihar

Ans. (c)

137. An approver's evidence:

A. must be reliable.

B. must be corroborated.

C. must be reliable and preferably corroborated.

D. is not admissible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

A. 1 and 4

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 and 2

D. 2 and 4

Ans. (b)

138. Principle of vicarious liability was first time decided in the case

A. R. v. Huggins

B. R. v. Stephenson

C. R. v. Tolson

D. R. v. Prince

Ans. (a)

139. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defences available in action for defamation?

A. Privilege, truth, fair comment

B. Fair comment, mistake, privilege

C. Fair comment, mistake, truth

D. Mistake, privilege, truth

Ans. (a)

140. Some provisions of the I.P.C. have been amended by the

A. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

B. Arbitration and Reconciliation Act; 1996

C. Information Technology Act, 2000

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

141. Which of the following is a leading case on intoxication

A. Nathulal v . State of M.P.

B. Director Public Prosecutions v. Beard

C. Barrow v. Issacs

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

142. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:

List I List II

A. Dowry death 1. Section 340 IPC

B. House-breaking 2. Section 351 1PC

C. Assault 3. Section 304 B IPC

D. Wrongful 4. Section 445 IPC

confinement

Code:

A B C D

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 3 4 1 2

(D) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (c)

143. Under which of the following sections of LP.C., there is provision of death sentence?

Answer with the help of code given below:

A. Section 194 and 449

B. Sections 132 and 194

C. Sections 364 A and 396

D. Sections 124 A and 132

Code:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

144. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code?

A. Preparation to wage war against the State

B. Preparation to commit murder

C. Preparation to commit dacoity

D. Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power

Ans. (b)

145. Which one of the following is an inchoate crime?

A. Public nuisance

B. Criminal attempt

C. Unlawful assembly

D. Riot

Ans. (b)

146. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Rioting and affray have been defined in sections 146 and 159 of I.P.C respectively

B. Rioting must be committed in public, place affray may be committed in any place

C. Rioting is punishable with imprisonment extending to two years, affray is punishable with imprisonment extending to one month

D. Rioting is committed by 5 or more persons and affray is committed by 2 or more persons.

Ans. (b)

147. The offence of theft becomes robbery when it is

A. committed by 5 or more persons

B. committed by 2 or more persons, but less than five persons

C. coupled with force

D. coupled with imminent danger to .

Ans. (d)

148. Deception is an essential element of following:

A. Criminal breach of trust

B. Forgery

C. Cheating

D. All the above

Ans. (c)

149. A by putting B in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces B to sign in a blank paper an delivers it to A. B after signing that paper delivers it to A. A has committed

A. theft

B. dacoity

C. robbery

D. extortion

Ans. (d)

150. Which of the following is not an essential element of “unlawful assembly”?

A. Five or more persons

B. Common object

C. Common intention

D. To resist the execution of any law or of any legal process

Ans. (c)

Courtesy:- Legal Point Foundation

Legal Point

03 March, 2016

Solved Question Paper of Uttar Pradesh A.P.O. Examination, 2006

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