Legal Point: Solved Question Paper of U.P. Judicial Services Examination, 2006

U.P. Judicial Services Examination, 2006

Part-I

General Knowledge

1. The 'Periplus of the Erythrenean Sea' tells us about:

A. Customs and habits in ancient India

B. Social life in ancient India

C. Trade between India and the West

D. Geographical condition in ancient India.

Ans. (c)

2. The earliest evidence of rice cultivation in the mid-Ganga plain has been obtained from:

(A) Chirand (B) Narhan

Ans. (d)

3. From which one of the following Harappan sites the evidence of extensive stadiums has been found?

(A) Kuran (B) Mohanjodaro

Ans. (a)

4. 'Ghoshitarama', where Buddha had stayed for some time was located at:

(A) Rajgriha (B) Champa

Ans. (d)

5. Who among the following was the first Gupta ruler to assume the title of 'Maharajadhiraja'?

(A) Srigupta (B) Chandragupta-I

Ans. (b)

6. The historian, who wrote the history of Ashoka only on the basis of inscriptions, is:

(A) Bhandarkar (B) Rajbali Pandey

Ans. (a)

7. The Governing Council of Shivaji was called as:

(A) Mantri Parishad (B) Mantri Sabha

Ans. (d)

8. Who of the following Sultans introduced the system of "Patta" 'and "Qabuliyat" to help the peasants?

A. Giyasuddin Tughlaq

B. Firoz Tughlaq

C. Bahlol Lodi

D. Sher Shah

Ans. (d)

9. The number of categories in which Mansabdars could be divided according to the 'Zat' and 'Sawar' ranks was:

(A) Two (B) Three

Ans. (b)

10. Who of the following Mughal Emperors abolished the custom of 'Sijda' or Prostration?'

(A) Akbar (B) Jahangir

Ans. (c)

11. Who among the following rulers introduced the principle of ' Local Responsibility’ in village administration?

(A) Akbar (B) Sher Shah Sun

Ans. (b)

12. Who of the following became the Nawab of Oudh after Safdarjang?

A. Sirajuddaula

B. Shujauddaula

C. Burhan-ul-mulk

D. Hairat Khan

Ans. (b)

13. Who among the following composed the famous 'flag song' "Jhanda Unchaa Rahe Hamara"?

A. Maithili Sharan Gupta

B. Surya Kant Tripathi 'Nirala'

C. Ramdhari Singh 'Dinkar'

D. Shyam Lal Gupta 'Parshad

Ans. (d)

14. Who among the following was associated with ‘Samvaad Kaumudi’, ‘Miratual Akhabaar’ and ‘Vedant College’?

A. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

B. Keshav Chandra Sen

C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

D. Henry Vivian Derezio

Ans. (c)

15. The meaning of cultural lag is:

A. When material culture is left behind non-material culture

B. When non-material culture is -left behind material culture .

C. When both material and non-material cultures rest on same point

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

16. Which one of the following temples presents the earliest example of vossoir-arch, found in India?

A. Deogarh temple

B. Bhitargaon temple

C. Lingaraj temple of Orissa

D. Kandariya Mahadeo temple of Khajuraho

Ans. (b)

17. The earliest work on education is:

A. Pratishakya Sutra

B. Mundak Upanishad

C. Rigveda

D. Manusmriti

Ans. (a)

18. Nirgranths were popularly known as:

(A) Jains (B) Ajivikas

Ans. (a)

19. Rajmnama' is the Persian translation of:

(A) Rigveda (B) Samveda

Ans. (c)

20. Who among the following was the first Bhakti- age Saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message?

(A) Ramananda (B) Kabir

Ans. (a)

21. The 'Hauz-i-khas' in Delhi was built up by:

A. Iltutmish

B. Balban

C. Alauddin Khilji

D. Firozshah Tughlaq

Ans. (c)

22. The hallmark of Mughal architecture is:

A. The arch and the done

B. Buildings on raised platforms

C. Highly symmetrical layout

D. All the above.

Ans. (d)

23. Nagina Masjid' is situated in the Fort of:

(A) Ajmer (B) Agra

Ans. (b)

24. All the major rivers of the Deccan Plateau merge into the Bay of Bengal except:

(A) Godavari (B) Narmada

Ans. (b)

25. Who among the following is the author of 'Ratnkhan'?

(A) Malukdas (B) Raskhan

Ans. (a)

26. Who of the following invented the musical instrument 'Tabla'?

(A) Lal Khan (B) Amir Khusrau

Ans. (b)

27. The language of Sangam literature was:

(A) Kannada (B) Telugu

Ans. (c)

28. Shahjahan used to enter the Jama Masjid through the:

(A) Eastern gate (B) Western gate

Ans. (a)

29. Who among the following is called the "Father of Modern Urdu Poetry"?

(A) Amir Khusrau (B) Mirza Ghalib

Ans. (d)

30. Gasohol is a combination of gasoline and:

(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Methyl alcohol

Ans. (a)

31. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly:

(A) Two minutes (B) Four minutes

Ans. (c)

32. The only active volcano in India is:

(A) Vesuvius (B) Etna

Ans. (c)

33. Which one of the following statements is NOT, correct?

A. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area

B. Arunachal Pradesh has the largest area under dense forests

C. Nagaland is the most forested State of India

D. Haryana is the least forested State of India

Ans. (c)

34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

(Iron-ore mine) (State)

A. Dhalli Rajhara 1. Orissa

B. Noamundi 2. Karnataka

C. Kemmangundi 3. Jharkhand

D. Gurumahisani 4. Chhatisgarh

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 4 1 3 2

(B) 4 3 2 1

(D) 3 2 4 1

Ans. (b)

35. Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant obtains its iron ore from the mines of:

(A) Bababudan (B) Bailadila

Ans. (b)

36. In which one of the following parts of atmosphere most large aeroplanes, like jets, generally fly?

(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere

Ans. (b)

37. The following rivers of India flow into the Bay of Bengal:

1. Godavari 2. Kaveri

3. Krishna 4. Mahanadi

5. Subarnarekha

Which one of the following is their correct sequence from South to North?

(A) 3,2,4, 1,5 (B) 5,4, 1,3,2

Ans. (d)

38. According to 2001 Census, the largest out- migration has been observed from:

(A) Bihar (B) Chhatisgarh

Ans. (d)

39. Amongst the following States in India, the percentage of tribal population to total population is highest in:

A. Nagaland

B. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Jharkhand

D. Chhatisgarh

Ans. (b)

40. 'Jana-Gana-Mana' was first sung at the:

A. 1896 Session of the Indian National Congress (INC)

B. 1905 Session of the INC

C. 1911 Session of the INC

D. 1919 Session of the INC

Ans. (c)

41. Who of the following has called Indian Federalism as Co-operative Federalism?

(A) K.C. Wheare (B) Sir Ivor Jennins

Ans. (a)

42. Which one of the following statements about 'Directive Principles of State Policy' is correct?

A. They are positive

B. They can be enforced by Courts

C. They make India a Welfare State

D. State has a duty to implement them

Ans. (b)

43. The term" Assuring the Dignity of Individual" has been mentioned in the In Constitution:

A. As Fraternity objective in the Preamble

B. As one of the functions of the Sup Court

C. As One of the Directive Principles State Policy

D. As a corollary of Right to Equality

Ans. (a)

44. Which one of the following Articles about Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of Children?

(A) Article-17 (B) Article-19

Ans. (d)

45. Who of the following is credited with the establishment of the University Gran Commission?

A. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Ram Manohar Lohia

C. Abul Kalam Azad

D. Lal Bahadur Shastri

Ans. (c)

46. When a body is taken from the Earth to Moon:

A. Its weight increases

B. Its weight decreases

C. Its weight remains unchanged

D. It becomes completely weightless

Ans. (b)

47. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given at the end:

A. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill

C. Money Bill must be returned to Lok Sabha within 14 days by the Rajya Sabha

D. There is a provision for joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in case of Disagreement over a Money Bill.

Codes:

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 3 and 4 are correct

C. Only 4 is correct

D. 1 and 3 are correct

Ans. (d)

48. The words ‘ armed rebellion’ were substituted for ‘ internal disturbance’ in Article 352, by the

A. 24^th Amendment

B. 36^th Amendment

C. 42^nd Amendment

D. 44^th Amendment

Ans. (d)

49. The First Finance Commission was constituted in the year:

(A) 1956 (B) 1953

Ans. (d)

50. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution has given Delhi the status of National Capital Territory?

(A) 6^th (B) 69^th

Ans. (b)

51. The President of India can be removed from his Office only on the ground of:

A. Proved misbehaviour

B. Incapability

C. Violating the Constitution

D. Disobedience of the Parliament

Ans. (c)

52. Who of the following became the Prime Minister of India with the support of both the B.J.P. and the Left Parties?

A. Indira Gandhi

B. V.P. Singh

C. Charan Singh

D. Chandra Shekhar

Ans. (b)

53. Given below is a list of persons, who occupied the Office of Chief Minister of U.P.

A. Charan Singh

B. T.N. Singh

C. Sampurnanand

D. Chandra Bhanu Gupta

Select the correct chronological order of their Chief Ministership from the codes given below:

Codes:

A. 1, 3, 4 and 2

B. 3, 1, 4 and 2

C. 3, 2, 1 and 4

D. 3, 4, 1 and 2

Ans. (d)

54. The 52^nd Amendment of the Constitution made in 1985 added ‘Tenth Schedule’. It pertains to:

A. Panchayati Raj

B. North Eastern States

C. Disqualification on ground of defection

D. Extension of Reservation provisions

Ans. (c)

55. Which one set of the following States has only one representative each in Lok Sabha?

A. Manipur, Meghalaya

B. Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir

C. Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura

D. Mizoram, Nagaland

Ans. (d)

56. The candidate for the Office of the President must be sponsored by at least:

(A) 10 electors (B) 20 electors

Ans. (a)

57. Fibre Optics is based on the principles of:

A. Optical illusion

B. Scattering of light

C. Total internal reflection

D. Total internal absorption

Ans. (c)

58. Who among the following is known as the guardian of the ‘Public Purse’ in India?

A. The Comptroller & Auditor General

B. The President

C. The Minister of Finance

D. The Parliament

Ans. (a)

59. Which one of the following is NOT an expenditure charged on the Consolidates Fund of India?

A. Debt charges for which Government of India is liable

B. Salary and Pension of the members of Election Commission of India

C. Pension payable to the Judges of High Courts

D. Allowances of the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States.

Ans. (a)

60. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The authority to appoint the Advocate General in State is with the Governor

Reason ®: Usually, the person in the Office of the Advocate General changes with the change in the Government.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Ans. (c)

61. The founder of Modern Olympic Games was:

A. Baron Pierre de Coubertein

B. Antoine Lavoirsier

C. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck

D. Georges Cuvier

Ans. (a)

62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Term used) (in Sport)

A . Chinaman 1. Golf

2 B. Birdie 2. Kite flying

3 C. Tangle 3. Cricket

4 D. Love 4. Tennis

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 3 1 2 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (b)

63. The Nobel Prize in Physics, 2006 has been awarded to:

1. Andrew Z. Fire and Craig C Mello

2. Roy J Glauber and John L. Hall

3. John C Mather and George F Smoot

4. Steven Boone and Curtis Cooper

Ans. (c)

64. A man whose blood group is not known meets with an accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the following groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion?

A. O, Rh-

B. O, Rh+

C. AB, Rh-

D. AB, Rh+

Ans. (a)

65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Book) (Author)

A. Spouse Shadi Ka Sach 1. Chetan Bhagat

B. Wings of Fire 2. Parvez Musharraf

C. Agnipath-Meri Atmakatha 3. Shobha De

D. the Argu- mentative Indian 4. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

5. Amartya Sen

Codes:

A B C D

1 2 3 4

3 4 2 5

1 4 3 2

2 1 4 3

Ans. (a)

66. 'Lakshya' which was recently inducted into Indian Defence System is a:

A. Surface to air missile

B. Missile firing Submarine

C. Multi-barrel rocket system

D. Pilot-less target aircraft

Ans. (d)

67. Which one of the following Satellites launched by ISRO successfully on 2 December, 2005?

A. INSAT-4A

B. INSAT-2A

C. INSAT-4B

D. INSAT-2B

Ans. (a)

68. The Supreme Court recently ruled that marriages irrespective of their religion compulsorily registered. Which one of following groups of four Stats each sire had marriage registration mandatory?

A. Assam, Bihar, Gujarat and Karnataka

B. Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra Orissa and Meghalaya

C. Gujarat, Maharashtra, West Bengal Assam

D. Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra

Ans. (d)

69. Under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme the concerned rura households are to be given job cards by:

A. Gram Panchayat

B. Gram Vikas Adhikari

C. Block Development Officer

D. Kshettra Panchayat

Ans. (a)

70. The objectives of SAARC include

1. acceleration of economic growth in the region

2. promotion of collective self-reliance

3. promotion of mutual assistance in various fields

4. encouragement of disarmament

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

71. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A) India is one of the greatest Sea Powers of the World

Reason (R) The Indian Ocean washes its shores on the three sides.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. is true, but (R) is false

D. is false, but (R) is true

Ans. (d)

72. The International Naval Exercise carried out In January 2006 near Carr Nicobar Island was given the name as

A. Attack-2006

B. Fight the Sea-2006

C. Look Forward-2006

D. Milan-2006

Ans. (d)

73. The book "Communist Manifesto" responsible for several revolutions was published in the year

(A) 1798 (B) 1828

Ans. (c)

74. Which one of the following Indian leaders recently made the statement "Teaching is my first love, I merely drifted into Government"?

A. Arjun Singh

B. Murli Manohar Joshi

C. Bhattacharji

D. Manmohan Singh

Ans. (d)

75. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A) He lived by the gun and if Saddam Hussain gets his way, he will die by the gun

Reason (R) The former Iraqi dictator is demanding a warrior's execution by a firing squad.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. is true, but (R) is false

D. is false, but «R) is true

Ans. (a)

76. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A) Venezuela and Guantemala wanted entry into the U.N. Security Council

Reason (R) Only one succeeded with American Support

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. is true, but (R) is false

D. is false, but (R) is true

Ans. (c)

77. Hamid Karjai

1. Is President of Afghanistan

2. Is a product of Kashmir University, Srinagar

3. Has friendly relations with Government of India

4. Is recipient of Indira Gandhi Peace Prize

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

78. World Citizenship Award 2006 has been given to rebuild communities in dozen countries to

A. Ms. Ruth Manorama

B. Bill Clinton

C. Chico Whitaker

D. Daniel Ellesbert

Ans. (b)

79. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A) Thousands of American Muslims gave a standing ovation to their new President in Chicago in September, 2006

Reason (R) Professor Ingrid Mattson, was elected as the first Woman President at the annual convention of the Islamic Society of North America

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans. (a)

80. Which of the following statements are true about Mahatma Gandhi?

A. He made no distinction between means and ends.

B. He rejected violence as a tool for social change.

C. His Theory of Satyagraha was based on the surgery of the soul

D. Gandhigiri is not a respectable term.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

81. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A) The State Election Commission is a statutory authority

Reason (R) It enjoys powers similar to that of the Election Commission of India

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, the correct explanation of

C. is true, but (R) is false

D. is false, but (R) is true

Ans. (c)

82. Which of the following is NOT the right of a child?

A. The Child’s inherent rights of life

B. The Child’s right to own property

C. The right of a child to education

D. The right of a child to social security

Ans. (b)

83. Which one of the following group of cities in U.P. is correctly placed as having a Mayor system?

A. Kanpur, Allahabad, Varanasi, Mainpuri

B. Lucknow, Aligarh, Moradabad, Meerut

C. Varanasi, Agra, Mathura, Moradabad

D. Agra, Bareilly, Merrut, Etawah

Ans. (b)

84. Which of the following rivers have aim same point of beginning?

A. Brahmaputra and Ganges

B. Tapi and Beas

C. Brahmaputra and Indus (Sindh)

D. Indus and Ganges

Ans. (c)

85. Dev Dipawali was organised on the last Purnima day on the banks of river Gan

(A) Haridwar (B) Rishikesh

Ans. (d)

86. Given below are two 'statements:

Assertion (A) Globalization has led exchange of ideas, information, technologies and services.

Reason (R) The pace of globalization has accelerated because technological advanments

In the context of above, which one 01 t following is correct?

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans. (a)

87. India and China recently in 2006 set a target of 40 billion American dollars for their bilateral trade. The stipulated period within which the target is to be achieved is:

(A) Two years (B) Four years

Ans. (b)

88. In India Service Tax is collected by

A. Trade Tax Department

B. Income Tax Department

C. Customs & Central Excise Department

D. Nationalized Banks

Ans. (c)

89. Which one of the following is correct about Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY) stated in December 2000?

A. It is a hundred percent centrally sponsored scheme

B. It is based on 80:20 percent Central and State funding

C. It has 50:50 percent Central and State sharing

D. It has 60:40 percent Central and State sharing

Ans. (a)

90. Which one of the following ports is NOT classified under ‘major’ ports In India?

A. Pondicherry

B. Cochin

C. Paradip

D. Vishakhapatnam

Ans. (a)

91. The minimum number of women required for formation of women groups under Development of women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA) Programme is:

(A) 20 (B) 15

Ans. (c)

92. Which one of the following methods is used by the India's Central Bank for Quantitative Credit Control?

A. Bank Rate

B. Open Market Operations

C. Cash Reserve Ratio

D. All the above

Ans. (d)

93. Which of the following are taken into consideration by the Finance Commission of India in the distribution of resources between the Centre and the States?

A. Tax sharing

B. Grant-in-aid

C. Debt relief

D. Relief for natural calamities

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 (B) I, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

94. Which one of the following has NOT been the part of land reforms programme in India?

A. Consolidation of Holdings

B. Agriculture Holding Tax

C. Removal of Zamindari system

D. Maximum limit of land holdings

Ans. (b)

95. Which one among the following is the largest revenue earner for the State Government of Uttar Pradesh?

A. Entertainment Tax

B. Duty on sale of Narcotics and Liquor

C. Passenger Vehicle Tax

D. Land Revenue

Ans. (b)

96. Which one of the following organisations in India is concerned with industrial sickness?

A. NABARD

B. Disinvestment Commission

C. BIFR

D. SIDB

Ans. (c)

97. In International Trade India's largest trading partner (exports and imports) is:

(A) European Union (B) U.S.A.

Ans. (a)

98. At which one of the following places the first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) in private sector was established?

A. Kandla

B. Vishakhapatnam

C. Nodia

D. Surat

Ans. (d)

99. The concept of Performance Budget has been borrowed from:

(A) Germany (B) England

Ans. (c)

100. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Reserve Bank of India and State Bank of India are statutory organisations

B. Both R.B.I. and S.B.I existed at the time of independence

C. R.B.I. is a regulatory body

D. S.B.1. is engaged in commercial operations.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

A. 1 and 2

B. 1,2 and 3

C. 1,3 and 4

D. All the four

Ans. (c)

101. Which one of the following crops is of Kharif season?

(A) Soyabean (B) Linseed

Ans. (a)

102. Fruit most suitable for making Jelly is:

(A) Papaya (B) Karaunda

Ans. (b)

103. Heavy water contains:

A. More dissolved air

B. More dissolved minerals and salts

C. Deuterium in place of hydrogen

D. Contains organic impurities

Ans. (c)

104. Name the elements used in household detergents and identified as the chief factor for pollution or rivers and lakes?

(A) Phosphorus (B) Nitrogen

Ans. (a)

105. Cassini space probe has spotted two new moons around which of the Planet of the Solar System?

(A) Mars (B) Jupiter

Ans. (d)

106. Which of the following factor(s) is/are held responsible for making terrorism a global phenomenon?

A. Advancement of information technology

B. Weapons of mass destruction

C. Poverty and unemployment

D. All of the above factors

Ans. (d)

107. When development in Economy takes place, the share of tertiary sector in National Income:

A. Increases

B. Declines

C. Remains constant

D. First rises and then falls

Ans. (a)

108. Which one of the following types of soil is predominant in Bundelkhand region?

(A) Black cotton soil (B) Alluvial soil

Ans. (a)

109. That the social inequality exists in I evidenced by the:

A. Illiteracy

B. Unemployment

C. Difference between the rich and poor

D. Practice of untouchability

Ans. (d)

110. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to investigate the condition of Backward Classes?

(A) Article-343 (B) Article-342

Ans. (d)

111. Which Article of the Constitution provides appointment of a National Commission investigate all matters relating to safe-g 1 provided for the Scheduled Castes?

(A) Article-330 (B) Article-335

Ans. (c)

112. Which one of the following is not a parammeter in Human Development Index?

A. Infant mortality rate

B. Life expectancy

C. Social inequality

D. Real percapita income

Ans. (c)

113. "Biological Oxygen Demand" (BOD) is used as a standard measure for:

A. Oxygen level in forest system

B. Oxygen level in animals

C. Oxygen level in atmosphere

D. Oxygen level in water system

Ans. (d)

114. Who among the following released 'Citizen's Guide' for generating awareness among people against corruption?

A. Department of Public grievances

B. Central Vigilance Commission

C. Consumer Co-operative Societies

D. Transparency International

Ans. (b)

115. Where is "Tshwane"? It was recently in news:

(A) In Russia (B) In South Africa

Ans. (b)

116. 'Charkula' is the seasonal folk dance of:

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (a)

117. Prominent musician 'Girja Devi' belongs to:

A. Lucknow Gharana

B. Agra Gharana

C. Banaras Gharana

D. Gwalior Gharana

Ans. (c)

118. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat have the same territorial area

B. Gram Panchayat and Nyaya Panchayat have the same territorial area

C. Pradhan of a Gram Panchayat is elected by electors of the given area from amnongst themselves

D. The term of a Gram Panchayat is usually five years

Ans. (b)

119. Which one of the following Fungus is edible?

(A) Penicillium (B) Mucor

Ans. (d)

120. Which of the following are used as nitrogenous biofertilizers?

A. Azola

B. Blue Green Algae

C. Alfalfa

D. Nitrolin

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,2 and 4

Ans. (a)

121. Clinker Theory' is associated with

(A) Growth (B) Development

Ans. (c)

122. The First American Patent for a living organism was given to:

A. Hargovind Khurana

B. Anand Mohan Chakravarti

C. Francis Crick

D. J.D. Watson

Ans. (b)

123. Atmospheric ozone layer which protects us from ultraviolet rays is getting highly depleted because of:

A. Chlorofluoro carbons

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Sulphur dioxide

Ans. (a)

124. 2, 4-D is:

(A) An insecticide (B) An explosive

Ans. (d)

125. Which one of the following Hormones forms the basis of 'Pregnancy Test' from urine?

(A) L.H. (B) F.S.H.

Ans. (d)

126. Which one of the following drugs has been recently reported to be responsible for the decline of the population of vultures?

A. Aspirin

B. Chloroquin

C. Diclofenac Sodium

D. Renicillin

Ans. (c)

127. Which one of the following is used for making Bullet-Proof material?

A. Poly-Vinyl chloride

B. Poly-amide

C. Poly-carbonate

D. Poly-ethylene

Ans. (c)

128. The cover of a solar cooker is made of glass because:

A. under ground water table has increased.

B. Glass is transparent and one can see the food cooking

C. Glass does not absorb heat radiation and so no wastage of energy

D. Glass is a good conductor of heat and is also cheap

Ans. (a)

129. Due to global warming

A. under-ground water- table has increased.

B. glaciers have started melting.

C. abrupt climatic changes are happening.

D. human health is being adversely affected.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (d)

130. Television signals cannot be received ordinarily beyond a particular distance due to:

A. Weakness of signals

B. Weak antenna

C. Absorption of signals in the air

D. Curvature of the earth

Ans. (d)

131. A remote control gadget (for T.V. etc.) has in it:

A. A small electro-manget, that emits electro-magnetic waves.

B. A small oscillator that emits electric pulses

C. A small transmitter that emits infra-red signals

D. All the above

Ans. (c)

132. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Television 1. W. Rontgen

B. Mobile Phon 2. John Shepherd Barron

C. A.T.M. 3. J.L. Baird

D. X-Rays 4. John Edwards

Codes:

A B C D

A. 1 2 3 4

B. 2 3 1 4

C. 4 1 2 3

D. 3 4 2 1

Ans. (d)

133. Unix, DOS, Windows are examples of

A. Application programme

B. Operating systems

C. Word Processors

D. Commercial computer brands

Ans. (b)

134. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The IBM’s Blue Gene Super Computer can only be shipped in a Boeing 747 freighter

Reason®: It is World’s fastest super computer

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

A. Both A and B are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Ans. (b)

135. Collagen used in modern cosmetic to flatten wrinkles and to plump' structural protein. From which one following is NOT extractable in abu

A. Skin

B. Bone

C. Tendon

D. Muscle

Ans. (d)

136. When the fourth unit for atomic power plant at Tarapore became operational in March 2005, it became in India the:

A. 15^th and largest unit

B. 12^th and smallest unit

C. 10^th and largest unit

D. 7^th and smallest unit

Ans. (a)

137. Nanotechnology uses structures of the size of:

(A) 10⁶ m (B) 10^-6 m

Ans. (d)

138. A jet engine works on the principal conservation of:

A. Energy

B. Mass

C. Linear Momentum

D. Angular Momentum

Ans. (c)

139. Which one of the following is NOT used by Night Vision Cameras?

A. Amplified light

B. Infra red sensors

C. Heat radiation from objects

D. X-Ray radiation from objects

Ans. (d)

140. The tail of a comet always points:

A. Towards the ,Sun

B. Away from the Sun

C. Towards North-East

D. Towards South-East

Ans. (b)

141. Which one of the following creatures was first to travel to space?

A. A mouse

B. A dog

C. A cockroach

D. A mosquito

Codes:

A B C D

A. 1 2 3 4

B. 4 3 2 1

C. 4 1 2 3

D. 5 2 4 1

Ans. (b)

142. The Indian National Satellite System has facilitated:

A. Telecommunication

B. T.V. broadcasting

C. Cyclone warning

D. All the above

Ans. (d)

143. The number of Moons, which Jupiter has, are

(A) 0 (B) 16

Ans. (b)

144. The Earth and the Moon are about same distance from the Sun, yet on the average the Earth is much warmer than Moon. Its reason is:

A. The Moon is much smaller than the Earth

B. Nights on the Moon are much longer

C. The Moon has almost no atmosphere

D. The surface of the Moon is darker

Ans. (c)

145. A 80 Kg. man, 40 Kg. woman and a 20 Kg. girl skydive simultaneously. If their parachutes are Identical, then

A. The girl will land first of all

B. The woman will land first of all

C. The man will land first of all

D. All three will land simultaneously.

Ans. (d)

146. Match List-I with List-II about the recentYash Bharti awards and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Abhishek Bachchan 1. Journalism

B. Shitla Singh 2. Wrestling

C. Taluqdar Yadav 3. History- Writing

O. Yogesh Parveen 4. Art

Music

Ans. (c)

147. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. A high-level commission is investigating charges against Kirtg Gyanendra's Government

B. The monarchical system in Nepal is in danger

C. The pro-democracy movement was led by Maoists

D. India strongly supported Maoists' movement

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

148. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A) The situation in Bangladesh before the elections is turning violent.

Reason (R) The two major rival political parties are pressurizing the caretaker Government.

In the context of a love, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. is true, but (R) is false

D. is false, but (R) is true

Ans. (b)

149. Day and night are caused by:

A. Rotation of the Earth

B. Revolution of Earth around the Sun

C. Both rotation and revolution of the Earth

D. Neither rotation nor revolution of Earth

Ans. (c)

150. 'SONAR' is mostly used by:

(A) Doctors (B) Engineers

Ans. (d)

Part-II

Law

1. A fact is said to be “not proved”:

A. When it is disproved

B. When, after considering the matters before it, the court believes that it does not exist

C. When a prudent man considers that the fact does not exist

D. When it is neither proved nor disproved

Ans. (d)

2. "The statement in order to constitute a 'confession' under the Indian Evidence Act, must either admit in terms the offence or at any rate substantially all facts which constitute the offence."

The above view was expressed by the Privy Council in which one of the following cases?

A. John Makin v. Attorney General

B. Pakla Narain Swamy v. Emperor

C. H.H.B. Gill v. King Emperor

D. Q.E. v. Abdullah

Ans. (b)

3. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals only with civil matters?

A. Section-23

B. Section-27

C. Section-53

D. Section-133

Ans. (a)

4. In which of the following cases, it was held that Section-27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to Sections-24, 25 and 26?

A. Pakla Narain Swamy v. King Emperor

B. Inayatullah v. State of Maharashtra

C. State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhyaya

D. P. Kottayya v. King Emperor

Ans. (b)

5. The Principle of Promissory Estoppel found its root:

A. As an exception to the doctrine of consideration in the law of contract

B. As a rule of future consideration in the law of contract

C. As a rule of past consideration in the law of contract

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

6. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab which of the following?

A. Confession

B. Dying declaration

C. Entries in the books of account

D. Relevancy of judgments

Ans. (a)

7. "The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on that person who would fail evidence at all were given on either s'

This provision is contained in which of the Indian Evidence Act?

A. Section-101

B. Section-111

C. Section-102

D. Section-113

Ans. (c)

8. The principle that possession is prime proof of ownership is provided under:

A. Section-I09 of the Evidence Act

B. Section-111of the Evidence Act

C. Section-110 of the Evidence Act

D. Section-112 of the Evidence Act

Ans. (c)

9. In which one of the following cases, Supreme Court held that confession 01 accused are very weak evidence and conviction can be based solely on s confession?

A. Nathu v. State of U.P.

B. Ram Prakash v. State of Punjab

C. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P.

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

10. Which of the following does not find a mention as showing state of mind under Section-14 the Evidence Act, 1872?

A. III will

B. Motive

C. Good faith

D. Negligence

Ans. (b)

11. A witness. who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court; evidence so given shall be deemed to be

A. Primary evidence

B. Secondary evidence

C. Documentary evidence

D. Oral evidence

Ans. (d)

12. Provisions have been made under certain Sections of the Indian Evidence Act regarding relevancy of certain facts. Match the entries of List-I and List-II below and write the correct answer using the codes:

List-1 List-II

(Facts) (Sections)

A.	Opinion of Handwriting Expert	1.	22
B.	State of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found	2.	47
C.	Previous good character in criminal cases	3.	32
D.	Oral admissions as to contents of documents	4.	53

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 3 1 2 4

(D) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (a)

13. Legitimacy of child born during valid marriage is presumed under which Provision of the Indian Evidence Act?

A. Section-115

B. Section-114

C. Section-112

D. Section-113

Ans. (c)

14. "A barrister is instructed by an Attorney or Vakil that an important witness is a dacoit. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit." This illustration is based on which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section-149 (B) Section-153

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A.	Matrimonial Communication	Section 122
B.	Official Communication	Section 124
C.	Professional Communication	Section 126
D.	Confidential Communication with legal advisers	Section 127

Ans. (d)

16. 'Decree holder' means any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made. This definition of the term 'decree holder' is mentioned under:

A. Section-2(2), C.P.C.

B. Section-2(3), C.P.C.

C. Section-2(4), C.P.C.

D. Section-2(d), C.P.C.

Ans. (b)

17. "Rejection of Plaint" is mentioned under:

A. Order VII Rule 11

B. Order VI Rule 13

C. Order VII Rule 12

D. Order VIII Rule 4

Ans. (a)

18. Which of the following combinations are not correctly matched?

1. Execution of decree Sec. 77, C.P.C.

2. Letter of request . Sec. 82, C.P.C.

3. Legal representative Sec. 50, C.P.C.

4. Institution of suit Sec. 28, C.P.C.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

A. (1), (2) and (3)

B. (1), (2) and (4)

C. (I), (3) and (4)

D. (2), (3) and (4)

Ans. (b)

19. Which one of the following cases is on second appeal?

A. Madan Lal v. Bai Krishna

B. Sudhir G. Angur v. M. Sanjeev

C. Sheodan Singh v. Daryao Kunwar

D. Harshad Chiman Lal Modi v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.

Ans. (a)

20. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under:

A. Order V Rule 9A, C.P.C.

B. Order V Rule 9, C.P.C.

C. Order IV Rule 7, C.P.C.

D. Order VI Rule 6, C.P.C.

Ans. (a)

21. Section-115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for the following:

A. Reference

B. Review

C. Revision

D. Appeal to the Supreme Court

Ans. (c)

22. Order XXIII of the Civil Procedure Code applies to the following:

A. Withdrawal of suits

B. Appeals

C. Execution proceeding

D. All the above

Ans. (a)

23. Under which explanation of Section-11 of Civil Procedure Code Constructive Resjudicata has been explained?

(A) Explanation-I (B) Explanation-Il

Ans. (d)

24. Section-18 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for

A. Place of institution of suit in respect of immovable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of one court

B. Place of instruction of suit in respect of immovable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of different courts

C. Place of institution of suits in respect of immovable property where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain

D. All the above

Ans. (c)

25. A decree may be executed by:

A. Tehsildar

B. Collector

C. District Judge

D. Either by the Court which passed it or to which it is sent

Ans. (d)

26. Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the court of first instance is the essence of:

A. Section-21 A of C.P.C.

B. Section-20 of C.P.C.

C. Section-22 of C.P.C.

D. Section-21 of C.P.C.

Ans. (d)

27. The period of limitation within which defendant shall submit his written statement is ordinarily within:

A. 60 days from service of summons

B. Always 90 days from service of summons

C. 30 days from service of summons or 90 days if allowed by the court

D. 15 days from service of summons

Ans. (c)

28. A person may sue a foreign state:

A. With the consent of t Government

B. Only with the consent of the Central Government

C. With the consent of Central Government

D. With the consent of the President of India

Ans. (b)

29. Certain topics under the Code Procedure are described hereunder while their Section/Order numbers mentioned in List-II. Match the entries I and List-II and write the correct answer the codes below:

List-I List-II

A. Affidavit 1. Order 26

B. Arrest before Judgement 2. Order 33

C. Commission to examine 3. Order 19

witnesses

D. Suit by indigent persons 4. Order 38

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 3 2 1 4

(D) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (c)

30. Which of the following determinations not come under the definition of "decree”?

A. An adjudication which conclusively determines the rights of the parties regard to some of the matters in before the court

B. Rejection of a plaint

C. Determination of any question Section-144 of the Code of Procedure

D. Dismissal of a suit for default

Ans. (d)

31. The Amendment of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the year 2002 amended:

(A) Section-I00 (B) Section-l06

Ans. (b)

32. Which one of the following is not an essential element for a valid transfer of property

A. Competent transferor

B. Transferable property

C. Transferee may not be competent to take the transfer

D. Object of transfer must be lawful

Ans. (c)

33. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Rule against perpetuity Section-14

B. Conditional transfer Section-24

C. Vested Interest Section-19

D. Contingent Interest Section-21

Ans. (b)

34. Section-41 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is the statutory application of the law of estoppel. The statement is:

A. True

B. False

C. Partly true

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

35. Which of the following cases is related to the right of redemption?

A. Stanley v. Wilde

B. Noakes v. Rice

C. Kreglinger v. New Pentagonia Meat and Cold Storage Co. Ltd.

D. All the above cases

Ans. (d)

36. Which of the following Sections of Transfer of Property Act contain exception to the maxim "Nemo dat quod not habet"?

A. Sections-41 and 42

B. Sections-43 and 44

C. Sections-41 and 44

D. Sections-41 and 43

Ans. (d)

37. A doctrine, which requires that the transferor must deliver the subsequently acquired property to the transferee who acted upon his false representation and did harm to himself by paying money for what he could not get it, is called:

A. Rule against unjust enrichment

B. Implied consent

C. Feeding the grant by estoppel

D. Doctrine of substantial compliance

Ans. (c)

38. Section-37 of the Transfer of Property Act on right to proceeds of revenue compensation on acquisition is based on:

A. Doctrine of election

B. Doctrine of substituted security

C. Doctrine of marshalling

D. Doctrine of contribution

Ans. (b)

39. Rule against perpetuity is not applicable to a case where:

A. Property is transferred for the benefit of the public.

B. Interest in property is created "generation after generation'.

C. Transfer of property purport to be effective beyond minority of ultimate transferee, who is not in existence at the date of transfer

D. Contingent interest are created by transfer

Ans. (a)

40. In case of gift,the donee dies before acceptance, then:

A. Gift is valid

B. Gift is void

C. Gift is voidable

D. Court has to decide

Ans. (b)

41. The doctrine of election is applicable to:

(A) Hindus (B) Muslims

Ans. (d)

42. The foundation of doctrine of election under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is that a person taking the benefit of an instrument:

A. Must bear the burden

B. Must not bear the burden

C. Burden is not the subject of election

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

43. 'A' lets a house to 'B' for five years. 'B' underlets the house to 'C' at a monthly rent of Rs. 1000/-. The five years expire, but 'C' continues in possession of the house and pays the rent to 'A'. The lease of 'C':

A. Is renewed for a further period of five years

B. Is renewed from month to month

C. Is terminable at any time

D. Is renewed from year to year

Ans. (b)

44. Remedy of 'Foreclosure' is available in which one of the following mortgages?

A. Usufructuary mortgage

B. Mortgage by conditional sale

C. Single mortgage

D. English mortgage

Ans. (b)

45. Match the Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act in List-I and Section in List-II below and select the correct answer using the codes mentioned thereunder:

List-I List-II

(Provisions) (Sections)

A. Doctrine of Election 1. 112

B. Subrogation 2. 92

C. Doctrine of Holding over 3. 35

D. Waiver forfeiture 4. 116

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 3 2 4 1

(B) 1 4 2 3

(D) 3 2 4 1

Ans. (a)

46. In every statute, mens rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown". This view was expressed in:

A. Sherras v. De Rutzen

B. R. v. Dudley & Stephen

C. Harding v. Price

D. R. v. Prince

Ans. (a)

47. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

A. Mens Rea R.v. Prince

B. Necessity D.P.P.v. Beard

C. Insanity Mc’ Naughten case

D. Intoxication Basudeo v. State of Pepsu

Ans. (b)

48. In which case the Supreme Court has struck down Section-303 of the Indian Penal Code as unconstitutional?

A. Machchi Singh v. State of Punjab

B. Bachchan Singh v. State of Punjab

C. Santa Singh v. State of Punjab

D. Mithu Singh v. State of Punjab

Ans. (d)

49. Which one of the following statements is not defamatory?

A. 'A' says about a woman 'B' that she has paramour wherever she goes

B. 'A' publishes a photograph with a false caption 'Goonda'

C. 'A' says, "I am not surprised that 'B's book is foolish for he is a libertine"

D. 'A' in the course of a police investigation says, ‘B' may be involved in of 'D' because both of them enemies

Ans. (d)

50. Assertion (A) Homicide is the killing of a human being by another human being

Reason (R) Homicide is always unlawful

Give the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and B are true, but R is not correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Ans. (c)

51. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of woman is punishable under:

A. Section-363,I.P.C.

B. Section-509,I.P.C.

C. Section-511,I.P.C.

D. Section-354, I.P.C.

Ans. (d)

52. B and C were on the railway platform. B had taken a ticket from Allahabad to Delhi. B an illiterate woman handed over the ticket to C in order to ascertain whether she had a right ticket. C under the pretence of returning the ticket to Delhi substituted it for the ticket of shorter journey and returned that as B’s ticket. In this case, C liable for

A. Cheating B

B. Criminal misappropriation

C. Theft

D. Criminal breach of trust

Ans. (b)

53. The principle of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant, while deciding the liability for the offence of:

A. Theft and dacoity

B. Culpable homicide and murder

C. Kidnapping and abduction

D. Abetment and conspiracy

Ans. (d)

54. 'A' commits theft on the property possession of 'B', and while committing this theft he has a loaded pistol under his garment, kept for the purpose or hurting B in case B should resist.

The offence committed by A is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) Section 382 (B) Section 379

Ans. (a)

55. Information Technology Act, 2000 has made amendments in

A. Only Section 463, I.P.C.

B. Only Section 466 and 477-A, I.P.C.

C. Section 463, 466 and 477-A, I.P.C.

D. Section 462, I.P.C. only

Ans. (c)

56. A promises to marry B his student and induced her to cohabit with him. He has given her a false assurance of marriage and also fraudulently gone through certain ceremonies of marriage, making B believe that she was a lawfully wedded wife of A. Later A refused to recognize her as his wife. What offence has been committed by A ?

A. Rape

B. Adultery

C. Outraging modesty of a woman

D. A has committed no offence

Ans. (a)

57. A, a police officer, tortures B in order to induce B to confess that he committed a crime. Under which Section of the I.P.C., the police officer is guilty of an offence?

(A) Section 325 (B) Section 326

Ans. (d)

58. A picked up a revolver and believing it to be loaded pulled the trigger with the criminal intention of shooting B dead. Fortunately the revolver was not loaded and B escaped unhurt. A has committed the offence of:

A. Murder

B. Attempt to murder

C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

D. A has committed no offence

Ans. (b)

59. Which one of the following combinations are not correctly matched?

A. Mehboob Shah v. Common Object Emperor

B. State of Maharashtra v. Mens Rea M.H. George

C. Director Public Defence of Prosecutor v. Beard Insanity

D. P. Rathiman v. Union Dowry Death of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List-I List-II

A. Criminal Breach of Trust 1. Section 396

B. Public Nusiance 2. Section 354

C. Dacoity with murder 3. Section 40

D. Assault with intention to outrage 4. Section 268

modesty of woman

Ans. (d)

61. Which one of the following is not provided in Section-4 of the Contract Act, 1872?

A. Communication of a proposal

B. Communication of acceptance

C. Communication of revocation

D. Revocation of proposals and acceptance

Ans. (d)

62. 'B' says to 'A-"lf you do not deny it, I shall assume that the horse is sound". 'A' says nothing. Here 'A's silence is equivalent to speech.

This illustration is based on

(A) Section-17 (B) Section-18

Ans. (a)

63. Wagering agreements are:

A. Void but enforceable by law

B. Void and not enforceable by law

C. Voidable and illegal but enforceable by law

D. Voidable and illegal but not enforceable bylaw

Ans. (b)

64. A proposal is revoked:

A. Only by the death or insanity of the proposer itself

B. By the death or insanity if the fact of the death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor

C. By the death or insanity of the proposer if the fact of his death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance

D. None of the above is correct

Ans. (c)

65. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?

A. Responsibility of finder of goods Sec. 71

B. Surety's liability Sec. 128

C. Sub-agent Sec. 191

D. Bailee's particular lien Sec. 171

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (1), (2) and (4) (B) (1), (2) and (3)

Ans. (b)

66. Which of the following is the correct meaning of the "privity of contract" principle?

A. Parties must maintain the privity of contract

B. Main objective of the contract must be maintained

C. Only parties to the contract may sue on it

D. Only the parties know in which circumstances the contract was made

Ans. (c)

67. Match the following:

A. Mc Gregor v.McGregor 1. General Proposal

B. Weeks v. Tybald 2. Intention to contract

C. Henderson v.

Stevenson 3. Consideration

D. Currie v. Misa 4. Reasonable notice

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(D) 4 2 3 1

Ans. (b)

68. The words “Consensus ad item” means:

A. No agreement can have more than one meaning

B. To agree in the same way

C. To agree on the same thing in the same sense

D. To agree for different objects in the same sense

Ans. (c)

69. Which one of the following does not amount to fraud?

A. Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true

B. Entire concealment of a fact

C. A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true

D. A promise made without intention of performing it.

Ans. (c)

70. A right to sue on “ Quantum Merit” arises:

A. When a party has fully performed the contract

B. When a party partly performed the contract and is discharged by the other party

C. When a contract is discharged by impossibility of performance

D. When a contract becomes illegal

Ans. (b)

71. Change of the nature of the obligation' contract is known as:

A. Rescission

B. Novation

C. Renovation

D. Alteration

Ans. (b)

72. The judicial basis of quasi-contractual obligation can be explained through 1 principle of:

A. Voluntary benefits

B. Just and reasonable solution

C. Unjust enrichment

D. "Indebitus-assumpsit''

Ans. (c)

73. The principle of assessment of damage breach is given in:

A. Hadley v. Baxendale

B. Scarf v. Zodine

C. King v. Horr

D. Hyde v. Wrench

Ans. (a)

74. Which statement is wrong regarding "agency" under the Indian Jaw of contract?

A. Principal should be competent to contract

B. The authority of agent may be expressed or implied

C. Consideration is necessary to create an agency

D. Guardian of a minor can appoint an agent for him

Ans. (c)

75. The case of Hochester v. De La Tour deals with:

A. Quasi contract

B. Doctrine of promissory estoppel

C. Anticipatory breach of contract

D. Quantum merit

Ans. (c)

76. Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment extending upto:

(A) 5 years (B) 7 years

Ans. (b)

77. Which provision of the Cr.P.C. resembles with Habeas Corpus Writ?

(A) Section-91 (B) Section-93

Ans. (c)

78. Which Section of the Cr.P.C., 1973 applies when the officer-in-charge of a police station receives information that a person has committed suicide?

(A) Section-174 (B) Section-1S1

Ans. (a)

79. Under which Section of Cr.P.C., inherent powers can be exercised by the High Court?

A. Section-482

B. Section-483

C. Section-484

D. Section-480

Ans. (a)

80. Which one of the following offences has not been enumerated under Section-110 of the Cr.P.C., 1973 which empowers an Executive Magistrate to require such person to show cause why he should not be ordered to execute a bond for his good behaviour?

A. Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940

B. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

C. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973

D. Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955

Ans. (b)

81. The Chapter of "Plea Bargaining" is added to the Cr.P.C. by the:

A. Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (Act No. 25 of 2005)

B. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 (Act No.2 of 2006)

C. Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2006

D. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2003

Ans. (b)

82. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A.	Police to prevent congnizable Offences	Section 149
B.	Power to arrest to prevent the commission of cognizable offence	Section 151
C.	Power to certain armed forces officers to dispense assembly	Section 131
D.	Arrest by Magistrate	Section 45

Ans. (d)

83. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

A.	Information in Cognizable offence	Section 154
B.	Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses Sec. 161	Section 161
C.	Search by Police Officer	Section 166
D.	Cases to be sent to Magistrate when evidence is sufficient	Section 171

Ans. (a)

84. Which one of the following combinations are not correctly matched?

A.	Anticipatory Bail	Section 437
B.	Summary Dismissal of Appeal	Section 384
C.	Appeal in case of Acquittal	Section 376
D.	Reference to High Court	Section 397

Select correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

A. A-I; B-2 and D-4

B. A-I; C-3 and D-4

C. A-I; B-2 and C-3

D. B-2; C-3 and D-4

Ans. (b)

85. Who of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section-125(4) of the Cr.P.C.?

A. Wife living in adultery

B. Wife living separately by mutual consent

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Either (a) or (b)

Ans. (c)

86. Save in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after Sunset and before Sunrise, and where such exceptional circumstances to arrest exist, the woman police officer shall obtain the prior permission of the following:

A. District Magistrate

B. Superintendent of Police

C. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class

D. Sessions Judge

Ans. (c)

87. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under Section 125 Cr. P.C.

A. Divorced wife so long as she does not marry

B. Unmarried sister

C. Adoptive mother

D. Illegitimate minor child

Ans. (b)

88. When the High Court or any Sessions Judge calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as:

A. Reference

B. Review

C. Revision

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

89. A report of person arrested without warrant shall be given by the officer-in-charge of police station to:

A. Only District Magistrate

B. Only Sub-divisional Magistrate

C. Judicial Magistrate of First Class

D. Either to the District Magistrate or Sub- divisional magistrate

Ans. (d)

90. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may under Section 166-A of the Cr.P.C. issue a:

A. Search warrant

B. Letter of requisition

C. Letter of request

D. Written order

Ans. (c)

91. Analytical positivism does not mean that:

A. Laws are in the nature of

B. Law as it is and as it ought be separated

C. Certain inherent moral essential feature of law

D. Analysis of legal concepts from critical evaluation

Ans. (c)

92 . "Nature has placed man under the pleasure and pain". It has been said by:

(A) Bentham (B) Austin

Ans. (a)

93. Who has written the following words : Law grows with the growth of people, with the strength of people and finally it dies away as the nation loses its nationality?

(A) Hart (B) Savigny

Ans. (b)

94. Who defined law as the "de psychologized command”?

(A) Kelsen (B) Bentham

Ans. (a)

95. The principal jurist of the Philo School was:

(A) Herbert Spencer (B) Sir Hem

Ans. (d)

96. Name the jurist who is called as “Darwinian before Darwin” and “Sociologist before Sociologists”

(A) Kelsen (B) Savigny

Ans. (b)

97. "Law should continue to support m' morality" has been pleaded by:

(A) Lord Devlin (B) Hart

Ans. (a)

98. Who said that "Ownership is a plenary control over an object"?

(A) Hibbert (B) Austin

Ans. (c)

99. The concept of "Living Law" was expo by which jurist? .

A. Austin

B. Ehrlich

C. Pound

D. Holland

Ans. (b)

100. Who wrote that "the only right which a man can possess is the right always to do his duty"?

(A) Duguit (B) Gray

Ans. (a)

101. Which one of the following is not a theory of legal personality?

A. Fiction theory

B. Concession theory

C. Interest theory

D. Bracket theory

Ans. (c)

102. How did Aristotle describe justice in restoring equality when this has been disturbed?

A. Distributive justice

B. Corrective justice

C. Universal justice

D. Natural justice

Ans. (b)

103. In which one of the following cases, the court pierced the veil of the corporate personality?

A. Solomon v. Solomon case

B. Smith, Stone and Knight's case

C. Daimler Company v. Continental Tyre Co. case

D. People's Pleasure Park Co. v. Rohleder case

Ans. (c)

104. Analysis of rights into four juristic correlative was done by:

A. Roscoe Pound

B. Radin

C. Hohfeld

D. Kokourek

Ans. (c)

105. Which one of the following is not a correct classification of possession?

A. Possession in fact and possession in law

B. Mediate and Immediate possession

C. Corporeal and incorporeal possession

D. Direct and indirect possession

Ans. (d)

106. The U.S.A. led armed attack on Iraq in March 2003 was:

A. Justified in international law

B. Was not justified in international Law

C. To destroy weapons of .mass destruction found by the UN team

D. In self defence of the USA .

Ans. (b)

107. Which one of the following signed the United Nations Convention on use of Electronic Communications in International Contracts in September 2006?

A. Sierra Leone

B. Egypt

C. Sudan

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

108. Who urged the United Nations to consider the deployment of an "International Security Monitoring Presence" in Lebanon?

A. G-8 leaders

B. Arab League

C. Organization of Islamic countries

D. SAARC

Ans. (a)

109. The General Assembly Resolution of 15 March 2006 decided to establish the Human Rights Council, based in Geneva:

A. As a new and additional subsidiary organ of the General Assembly

B. As a specialized agency of the UN

C. In replacement of the Human Rights Commission

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

110. Recently concluded mutual legal assistance treaty between India and the US relates to the area of

A. Trade and Commerce Law

B. Oil Exploration

C. Open Sky Agreement

D. Criminal Law

Ans. (d)

111. Asia Co-operation Dialogue (ACD) had been constituted for

A. Military assistance

B. Economic co-operation

C. Transport

D. Tourism

Ans. (b)

112. Iran was asked to suspend its nuclear programme by

A. Security Council

B. Security Council and Germany

C. General Assembly

D. Secretary General

Select the correct answer with the help of the codes given below:

Codes

A. 1

B. 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

113. The Word Trade Organization Agreement on agriculture was to be implement over a period of 6 years beginning from 1995 now it has been extended for developing countries. What is this period of extension?

(A) 5 years (B) 6 years

Ans. (d)

114. Who has been elected recently as the next Secretary General of the United Nations?

(A) Shashi Tharoor (B) Ban-ki-Moon

Ans. (b)

115. "Guantanamo Bay' has earned international notoriety for what reason?

A. As Hizbollah headquarter in Lebanon

B. As Hamas headquarter in Palestine

C. As the place where Baloch leader Bugti was killed by Pakistani forces

D. As the American detention centre for terror suspects

Ans. (d)

116. Volker Report deals with which one of the following?

A. Iran's nuclear programme

B. Iraq's 'oil-for-food' scandal

C. Iraq's weapon of mass destruction

D. Terrorist attack on New York World Trade Centre

Ans. (b)

117. On which date did India and the USA announce Civil Nuclear Co-operation through a joint statement?

A. 18 July 2005

B. 18 July 2006

C. 23 March 2006

D. 25 December 2005

Ans. (a)

118. How many States are members of an international group IBSA, of which the first summit was held in September 2006?

(A) 10 States (B) 12 Sates

Ans. (c)

119. In which country was the XIV Non-Aligned Summit held in September 2006?

(A) Iran (B) Cuba

Ans. (b)

120. Portugal has extradited Abu Salem to India under which the following?

A. Indo-Portugal Extradition treaty

B. International Conventional for the suppression of Terrorist Bombing, 1997

C. International Convention for the suppression of Financing of Terrorism, 2000

D. UN Security Council Resolution 1373 (2001) declaring terrorism contrary to the purposes and of the UN

Ans. (c)

121. Which Article of the UN Charter relates "Domestic jurisdiction"?

(A) Article-2(7) (B) Article-23

Ans. (a)

122. Which Article of the UN Charter provides the expulsion of a Member States?

(A) Article-l (2) (B) Articles 6

Ans. (b)

123. The budget of the United Nation is approved by:

A. Security Council

B. General Assembly

C. Secretary General

D. Economic and Social Council

Ans. (b)

124. The legality of the "Uniting for Peace” Resolution of the General Assembly been upheld by the International C Justice in:

A. Certain expenses of the United Case

B. Conditions of membership United Nations Case

C. Military and Paramilitary Case

D. Reparation Case

Ans. (a)

125. The United Nations enjoy immunities privileges in the territories of its Member States under:

A. Article 20 of the Charter

B. Article 104 of the Charter

C. Article 105 of the Charter

D. Article 106 of the Charter

Ans. (c)

126. Of which of the following intern judicial institutions the seat is no Hague?

A. International Criminal Court

B. International Court of Justice

C. Permanent Court of Arbitratioon

D. International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea

Ans. (d)

127. The Permanent Court of Arbitration was established in pursuance of the following:

A. Hague Conferences of 1899 and 1907

B. Covenant of the League of Nations

C. UN Charter

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

128. Which one of the following is not a specialized agency of the United Nations?

A. Universal Postal Union

B. United Nations Children Fund

C. International Civil Aviation Organization

D. International Financial Corporation

Ans. (d)

129. A non-member of the United Nations can become a member of the statute of the International Court of 'Justice:

A. On the recommendation of the General Assembly alone

B. On the recommendation of the Security Council alone

C. On the conditions to be laid down by the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council

D. On the recommendation of the Secretary General

Ans. (c)

130. On which date did the General Assembly of the United nations unanimously adopt for the first time a resolution and an annexed plan of action on Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy?

A. January 1, 2006

B. December 31, 2005

C. September 8, 2006

D. September 12, 2001

Ans. (c)

131. The 'Optional Clause' in para 2 of Article 36 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice is related to:

A. Voluntary jurisdiction

B. Compulsory jurisdiction

C. Advisory jurisdiction

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

132. in the event of a dispute as to whether the international Court has jurisdiction or not, the matter shall be settled by

A. Security Council

B. General Assembly

C. Decision of the International Court of Justice

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

133. Which one of the following organizations deals with refugees?

(A) UNESCO (B) UNHCR

Ans. (b)

134. Which Article of the UN Charter recognizes the right of individual and collective self- defence to its members?

(A) Article-26 (B) Article-51

Ans. (b)

135. Who was the first Secretary General of the United Nations?

A. Trigve Lie

B. Kurt Waldheim

C. U. Thant

D. None of the above

Ans. (a)

136. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?

A. To organize Village Panchayats

B. Right to education

C. Right to property

D. Right to move Supreme Court

Ans. (a)

137. "Article 21-A-Right to education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years" has been inserted in the Constitution by:

A. The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1977

B. The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

C. The Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992

D. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992

Ans. (b)

138. The doctrine of Territorial Nexus is related with:

(A) Article-13 (B) Article-211

Ans. (c)

139. In which Article of the constitution, the eligibility for re-election of the Presidents is given?

A. Article-57

B. Article-58

C. Article-59

D. Article-60

Ans. (a)

140. A-Professor of a University, who is an eminent jurist, is eligible to be appointed as a judge of the

A. High Court

B. Both High Court and Supreme Court

C. Neither in the Supreme Court nor in the High court

D. Supreme Court

Ans. (d)

141. The quorum for meetings of the House of People constitutes:

A. 1/10^th of the total members

B. 1/10^th of the total members or 100 members whichever is less

C. 1/3^rd of the total number

D. 100 members

Ans. (a)

142. "Creamy Layer" rule excluding the well placed members of a caste from reservation was first laid down In the case of:

A. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar

B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

C. India Sawhney v. Union of India

D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Ans. (c)

143. In which case, the Supreme Court directed the Government to implement the law against female foeticide with full determination?

A. Parents Association v. Union of India

B. Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar

C. CEHAT v. Union of India

D. Nishi Maghu v. State of Jammu & Kashmir

Ans. (b)

144. After which one of the following Supreme court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes, introduced by an Amendment of the Constitution of India?

A. D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat

B. M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore

C. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

D. T. Devadasan v. Union of India

Ans. (c)

145. Assertion (A) Right to education is a Fundamental Right

Reason (R) Our Constitution has no provision for education before making right to

Codes:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true and a correct explanation of (A)

C. is true but (R) is false

D. is false but (R) is true

Ans. (c)

146. "Autre Fois Acquit" principle is

A. Retrospective-operators

B. Double Jeopardy

C. Ex Post Facto Law

D. Self-incrimination

Ans. (b)

147. Which one of the following is the correct statement? "Full faith and credit" the Constitution does not apply to

A. Public acts

B. Public records

C. Acts of Corporation

D. Judicial proceedings

Ans. (c)

148. When the two Houses of Parliament diff regarding a Bill, then the deadlock resolved by

A. A joint sitting of two Houses

B. The President of India

C. The Prime Minister of India

D. Special Committee

Ans. (a)

149. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. India, that is a Bharat is a Union of States 1. Preamble

B. Liberty of Thought, Expression and Worship 2. Right to Freedom

C. Freedom of Speech and Expression 3. Union and its Territory

D. Protection of Interest of minorities 4. Cultural and Educational Rights

Codes

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 3 4

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans. (c)

150. The law declared by Supreme Court of India is binding on all courts within the territory of India, but he Supreme Court is not bound by Its decision was decided by the Supreme Court itself in

A. Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

C. Madhav Rao Scindia v. Union of Indi

D. Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar

Ans. (d)

Courtesy:-

Legal Point Foundation

Legal Point

03 March, 2016

Solved Question Paper of U.P. Judicial Services Examination, 2006

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