Legal Point: Solved Question Paper of U.P. A.P.O. Examination, 2002

U.P. A.P.O. Examination, 2002

Part-I

General Studies

1. Coal and hydrocarbons cause pollution which results in the release of a mixture of-

A. Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

B. Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen

C. Unburnt hydrocarbons

D. All of the above

Ans. (d)

2. Mercury eclipse was observed on May 7, 2003, when was this rare celestial phenomenon observed before this one?

(A) January 1993 (B) November 1999

Ans. (b)

3. In eye donation which part of donor's eye is utilized-

(A) Cornea (B) Iris

Ans. (a)

4. Match list-I and list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below-

List-I List-II

(Substance) (Element)

(a) Diamond 1. Calcium

(b) Marble 2. Silicon

(d) Ruby 4. Carbon

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

A. 1 2 3 4

B. 4 1 2 3

C. 4 3 2 1

D. 3 4 1 2

Ans. (b)

5. Which one on of the following is the richest in vitamin-C?

A. Star gooseberry (Amla)

B. Lime

C. Guava

D. Orange

Ans. (a)

6. Arrange the following in ascending order of calorific value-

1. Milk 2. Butter 3. Sugar 4. Ice Cream 5. Egg

(A) 1,5,4,3,2 (B) 1,4,5,3,2

Ans. (d)

7. Computer Grid is-

A. A hardware component of computer

B. A software infrastructure involving multiple computing organisations

C. The prototype of a super computer

D. A hardware component of a large hadron collider for nuclear research

Ans. (b)

8. Hand burns by steam are more serious as compared to burns by boiling water because-

A. Steam is light

B. Steam is endowed with latent heat

C. Steam enters the body

D. None of the above causes

Ans. (b)

9. Oil spreads on the surface of water because-

A. Oil is denser than water

B. Oil is less dense than water

C. Surface tension of oil is more than water

D. Surface tension of oil is less than that of water

Ans. (d)

10. The pendulum clocks of slow in summers because-

A. Days in summers are longer

B. Friction in coil

C. The length of the pendulum increases for summers

D. The weight of the pendulum increases in summers

Ans. (c)

11. In a bid to fight terrorism which of the following two countries signed a historic disarmament pact recently-

A. Russia - Japan

B. U. S. A. -- Germany

C. Germany - Russia

D. Russia -U. S. A.

Ans. (d)

12. 'Human Rights Day' is observed on-

(A) 20^th October (B) 4^th July

Ans. (d)

13. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Andrew Flintoff - Cricket

(B) Pete Sampras - Football

(D) Vijai Kumar - Swimming

Ans. (a)

14. The 1^st Lady Prime Minister in the world was-

(A) Golda Meir

(B) Indira Gandhi

(D) Sirimavo Bhandamaike

Ans. (d)

15. The venue selected for Olympics-2004 is-

(A) London (B) Stockholm

Ans. (c)

16. Match the following-

Manufacturer

(a) Tata 1. Scorpio

(b) Ford 2. Accent

(d) Malindra& 4. Indica

Mahindra

and select the correct answer from the code given below-

Codes:

Car Models

a b c d

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 3 2 4 1

(D) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (a)

17. Wisden 'Cricketer of the Century' award was conferred on-

(A) Sachin Tendulkar

(B) Sunil Gavaskar

(D) Mansoor Au Khan Pataudi

Ans. (c)

18. 'Yasser Arafat' who was in news recently was held captive by-

(A) Israel forces

(B) Palestine forces

(D) U.S. Forces

Ans. (a)

19. The Indian Home Rule Society in London, was started by-

(A) Annie Besant

(B) B.G. Tilak

(D) M.K. Gandhi

Ans. (c)

20. Who among the following Mughal princesses did write 'Humayunnamah'?

(A) Zebunnisa

(B) Roshnara

(D) Gulbadan Begum

Ans. (d)

21. The credit for the foundation of Amritsar goes to-

(A) Guru Angad

(B) GuruTeghBahadur

(D) Guru Aijun

Ans. (c)

22. The 1^st President of the All India Anti-Untouchabiity League, formed in 1932, was-

(A) B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Amrit Lal Thakkar

(D) M.K. Gandhi

Ans. (a)

23. Match the following-

(a) 1192 (b) 1707

1. Third battle of Panipat

2. Second battle of Tarain

3. Death of Akbar

4. Death of Aurangzeb

and select the correct answer from the followingcode-

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 3 4 2

(B) 2 4 1 3

(D) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (b)

24. Chanakya's other name was-

(A) Bhatta Swami

(B) Rajashekhara

(D) Vishakhadatta

Ans. (c)

25. Find the correct chronological order of the following Governor Generals from the code given below-

(A) Sir Henry Hardinge

(B) Lord Ellen Borough

(D) Lord Daihousie.

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) d c b a

(B) b a d c

(D) b c d a

Ans. (b)

26. In 1885 the President of Congress was-

(A) George Yule

(B) DadabhaiNaoroji

(D) W. Wedderburn

Ans. (c)

27. Among freedom fighters of 1^st War of Independence of 1857, 'Mahak Pan' nick name was given to-

(A) Laxmi Bai

(B) ZinatMahal

(D) None of the above

Ans. (b)

28. The Group of Lawyers to fight the case of Indian National Army in 1946 in the Red Fort Delhi trial was headed by-

(A) Sir TejBahadurSapru

(B) Dr. KailashNathKatju

(D) PanditJawahar Lal Nehru

Ans. (c)

29. The Province where the Indian National Congress could not get absolute majority during the General Election of 1937 was-

(A) Bombay

(B) Assam

(D) Bihar

Ans. (b)

30. In which chronological order the following events took place?

(A) ChauriChaura Episode

(B) JallianwalaBagh Massacre

(D) ChamparanSatyagrah

Select-the correct answer from the code-

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) a b c d

(B) b c d a

(D) c b d a

Ans. (c)

31. 'VanarSena' and 'Manijari Sena' are associatedwith-

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Civil Disobedience Movement

(D) Quit India Movement

Ans. (d)

32. Gandhi suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement because of-

(A) Chauri Chaura incident

(B) Repression by the British Government

(D) Indifference of the public at large

Ans. (a)

33. Study the following statements regarding the first war of Independence of 1857 and select the correct answer from the code given below-

(A) It was spear headed by Bahadur Shah Jafar.

(B) It brokeout in Kanpur on 4^th June, 1957.

(D) After Barrackppur episode revolt outbroke in Delhi.

Ans. (b)

34. Which one of the following statements is correct about Indian National Congress?

(A) Indian National Congress was a Hindu Organization

(B) Bal GangadharTilak was one of its Presidents.

(D) Indian National Congress took the vow for complete independence in the Lahore Session in 1929.

Ans. (d)

35. Which part of the Indian Constitution exhibit the commitment of the founding fathers to the goal of a peaceful social revolution?

(A) Preamble

(B) Part III dealing with fundamental rights.

(D) All the above three.

Ans. (d)

36. Assertioon (A): There is no stable party system in India.

Reason ® : There are too many political parties.

Select the correct answer from the code given below-

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and ® true and ® is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and ® are true, but ® is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) is false but ® is true

Ans. (d)

37. The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of adhoc judges in the-

(A) Supreme Court

(B) High Court

(D) All the above

Ans. (a)

38. Which one of the following pairs of states has equal seats In the Lok Sabha?

(A) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal

(B) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

(D) Punjab and Assam

Ans. (a)

39. Which one of the following institutions Isengaged in long-term 'industrial financing in India?

(A) ICICI (B) IDBI

Ans. (d)

40. Assertion (A): In the past few years there is a lot of mergers I and acquisitions" going on in Indian Industrial Sector.

Reason (R) .' There has been considerable dilution in MRTP Act provisions.

Select the correct answer from the following code-

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans. (b)

41. Which of the following taxes are levied by the Govt. of India?

I. Import Duty

II. Entertainment tax

III. Personal Income tax

IV. Stamp Duty

Select the correct answer from the code-

Codes:

(A) Only I and II (B) Only II and III

Ans. (c)

42. Study the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India and select the correct answer from the code given below-

I. It is the apex Bank

II. It regulates the money supply

III. It gives loans to business houses

IV. It supervises the operations of NABARD

Codes:

(A) I, II are correct

(B) I, II and III are correct

(D) I, II and IV are correct

Ans. (d)

43. Largest producer of apples in the world is-

(A) U. S. A. (B) Japan

Ans. (d)

44. The Mediterranean type of climate is charactensed by-

(A) Hot summers and wet winters

(B) Warm winters and cold summers

(D) Wet summer and dry winters

Ans. (a)

45. Which one of the following rock systems of India is highly metalliferous?

(A) Vindhyan

(B) Gondwana

(D) Tersiary

Ans. (c)

46. Which one of the following seas has the highest salinity?

(A) Dead Sea

(B) Berring Sea

(D) Red Sea

Ans. (a)

47. In which of the following states of India, the Hindus constitute the third largest religious community after Christians and Buddhists?

(A) Manipur

(B) Meghalaya

(D) Nagaland

Ans. (c)

48. Sustainable development requires-

(A) Conservation of biodiversity

(B) Prevention and Control of Pollution

(D) All the above three

Ans. (d)

49. According to Census least populated state is-

(A) Chattishgarh (B) Jharkhand

Ans. (a)

50. Which one of the following tributaries of the Ganga has a northerly course?

(A) Ghaghara (B) Ramganga

Ans. (d)

Part-II

Law

51. Who amongst the following is an accomplice?

(A) A prostitute

(B) A raped girl

(D) A person giving bribe under coercion

Ans. (a)

52. The case of PakalaNarainSwamy V/s Emperor relates to-

(A) Doctrine -Of estoppel

(B) Accomplice

(D) Hostile witness

Ans. (c)

53. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I

(Section)

(a) Section 159

(b) Section 154

(d) Section 141

List-II

(Provision)

1. Leading question

2. Oral evidence

3. Refreshing memory

4. Hostile witness

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 3 4 2 1

(D) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (b)

54. A confession is inadmissible if it is made by the accused-

(A) To a Magistrate whilst he is in the custody of a police officer

(B) To his friend whilst is not in the custody of a police officer

(D) To a spiritual adviser under the induce ment for the good of his soul

Ans. (c)

55. Leading questions may be asked in-

(A) Examination-in chief

(B) Cross-examination

(D) All the above

Ans. (b)

56. Extra-judicial confession means a confession made-

(A) Before the Magistrate in the court

(B) To the police officer

(D) None of the above

Ans. (b)

57. Who amongst the following is not a competent witness?

(A) A child (B) An idiot person

Ans. (b)

58. Hostile witness means-

(A) An unfavourable witness

(B) A witness who is desirous of telling the truth

(D) An overpowered witness

Ans. (a)

59. Assertion (A): An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person.

Reason (R) An accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corro- borated in material particulars.

Codes:

(A) Both A and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(D) is false but (R) is true

Ans. (a)

60. A confession is admissible if it is made by the accused to-

(A) A police officer

(B) A doctor whilst he is in the custody of a police officer

(D) A spiritual adviser under the inducement for the good of his soul

Ans. (d)

61. The case of Kashmira Singh V/s. State of Madhya Pradesh relates to-

(A) Dying declaration

(B) Privileged communication

(D) Confession of a co-accused

Ans. (d)

62. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act has been substituted for the old Section by the Information Technology Act,2000?

(A) Section 39

(B) Section 22

(D) Section 65

Ans. (a)

63. Which one of the following is primary evidence?

(A) Copies made from the original

(B) Document produced for the inspection of the court

(D) Photostat copies of a document

Ans. (b)

64. Character of a person for purposes of the law of evidence is not relevant in one of the following situations-

(A) Previous good character of the accused in criminal cases

(B) Previous bad character in reply to evidence of good character in criminal cases

(D) Character to prove conduct imputed in civil cases

Ans. (d)

65. Which one of the following is not a public document?

(A) An unregistered family settlement

(B) A registered sale deed

(D) Judgment of Civil Judge

Ans. (a)

66. A witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence in writing in the open court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be-

(A) Documentary evidence

(B) Primary evidence

(D) Oral evidece

Ans. (d)

67. Assertion (A): Extra-judicial confession, if voluntary, can be relied upon with other evidence.

Reason (R) Extra-judicial confession is a weak piece of evidence.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(A) is false but (R) is true

Ans. (a)

68. An admission under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act is-

(A) Only an oral statement

(B) Only a documentary statement

(D) An oral or documentary statement

Ans. (c)

69. Under Section 57(1) of the Evidence Act, the court shall take judicial notice of-

(A) All laws in force in India

(B) All laws including foreign laws

(D) All Indian and British laws up to 1950

Ans. (a)

70. 'Document' produced for the inspection of the court includes-

(A) A written document

(B) A caricature

(D) An inscription on stone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

Codes:

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (c)

71. Assertion (A): In certain cases corroboration of confession is necessary.

Reason (R):In all cases, an extra- judicial confession must be corroborated

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) is false but (R) is true

Ans. (b)

72. In case of suicide by a married woman, the court under Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act, may presume that suicide had been abetted by her husband, if-

(A) Suicide was committed by the wife within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage.

(B) The wife was subjected to cruelty.

(D) The wife was deserted by the husband.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below~

(A) 1,2,3, (b) 1, 3, 4

Ans. (d)

73. Assertion (A):A dying declaration is admissible in evidence.

Reason (R) : Its admissibility is founded upon the principle of necessity.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is false but (R) is true

Ans. (a)

74. Admissions are -

(A) Not conclusive proof of the matters admitted

(B) Conclusive proof of the matters admitted

(D) Of no value

Ans. (a)

75. Which one of the following is a correct statement relating to cross-examination?

(A) Witnesses to character may be' cross examined

(B) Leading questions cannot be asked in cross-examination

(D) A witness may not be cross-examined as to previous statements made by him in writing

Ans. (a)

76. In a cognizable offence a police officer-

(A) Cannot arrest an accused without warrant

(B) May arrest an accused without warrant

(D) Is not required to produce the accused before a Magistrate

Ans. (b)

77. Who among the following is not entitled for maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Illegitimater minor child

(B) Uterine brother

(D) Divorced wife

Ans. (b)

78. The main characteristic of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is-

(A) The empowernment of Executive Magistrate with Judicial power

(B) The separation of the Legislature from the Executive.

(D) The separation of the Revenue work from the Executive.

Ans. (c)

79. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under the Code of criminal Procedure?

(A) The appropriate Government

(B) The President of India

(D) The Central Government

Ans. (a)

80. The power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High Court can be exercised on an application by which one of following-

(A) Registrar of the concerned High Court

(B) Attorney General of India and Advocate General

(D) Solicitor General of India.

Ans. (b)

81. A sentence of imprisonment for a term of ten years may be passed by which one of the following?

(A) The Court of a Magistrate of the First Class

(B) The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate

(D) The Court of a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate.

Ans. (c)

82. A private person may arrest any person who?

(A) Is reported to be a criminal

(B) In his presence commits a non cognizable offence

(D) In his presence commits a cognizable and non-bailable offence

Ans. (d)

83. Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure a proclamation for person absconding may be issued?

(A) Section 83

(B) Section 82

(D) Section 80

Ans. (b)

84. Which Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provide for Trial before a Court of Session?

(A) Sections 225 to 237

(B) Sections 238 to 243

(D) Sections 260 to 265

Ans. (a)

85. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for prosecution for offences against marriage?

(A) Section 198 (B) Section 199

Ans. (a)

86. When an accused does not have sufficient means to engage pleader the Sessions Court may assign a pleader for his defence at the expense of the State. It is ensured by which Section of the Cr. P. Code?

(A) Section 301 (B) Section 304

Ans. (b)

87. Who among the following is not empowered to tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure?

(A) Metropolitan Magistrate

(B) Magistrate of Second Class

(D) Magistrate of the first Class

Ans. (b)

88. Which section of the Cr. P.C. provides that “no statement made by any person to a police officer in the course of an investigation shall, if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it?

(A) Section 164 (B) Section 162

Ans. (c)

89. Point out incorrect answer-The First information Report means:

(A) Report about cognizable offence

(B) Information given to the police officer

(D) It must always be given in writing

Ans. (d)

90. Point out incorrect answer-Under Section 125(4) Cr. P. Code wife will not be entitled to maintenance allowance if:

(A) She is living in adultery

(B) She refuses to live with her husband without sufficient reason.

(D) She embraces some other religion

Ans. (d)

91. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure authorises a private person to arrest any person committing cognizable offence?

(A) Section 44 (B) Section 42

Ans. (c)

92. Point out incorrect answer-The requisites of a valid warrant are:

(A) It shall be in writing

(B) It shall signed by presiding officer of the Court

(D) It must state the name of the accused but address is not necessary

Ans. (d)

93. An order of life imprisonment may be passed by-

(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(B) Sessions Judge

(D) Any Magistrate of the First Class

Ans. (b)

94. Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Investigation is made by a police officer.

(B) The object of police investigation is to collect evidence.

(D) Investigation is not a judicial proceeding.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (b)

95. Object of investigation is-

(A) To punish the accused

(B) To acquit the accused

(D) To convict the accused

Ans. (c)

96. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. a Sessions Judge exercise power of appeal?

(A) Section 373 (B) Section 376

Ans. (a)

97. Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure an accused person can himself be a competent witness?

(A) Section 311

(B) Section 313

(D) Section 319

Ans. (c)

98. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding two years relates to-

(A) Summon case

(B) Warrant case

(D) Neither of the above

Ans. (b)

99. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a-

(A) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding seven years.

(B) Sentence for life imprisonment

(D) Death sentence

Ans. (a)

100. A conditional order for removal of public nuisance under Section 133 of the code of Criminal Procedure may be passed by-

(A) District Magistrate

(B) Sub Divisional Magistrate

(D) Any of the above Magistrate

Ans. (d)

101. ‘A’ intentionally fired a shot from his pistol at ‘B’ but it hit ‘C’ died. The offence committed by ‘A’ is-

(A) Attempt to murder

(B) Culpable homicide

(D) Murder under Section 301

Ans. (d)

102. ‘A’ makes a false entry in his electronic record for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in the trial court. ‘A’ has-

(A) Fabricated false evidence

(B) Not fabricated false evidence

(D) None of the above

Ans. (a)

103. A workman throws snow from a roof giving warning. A passer by is killed. The workman is-

(A) Guilty of murder

(B) Guilty of culpable homicide not amount murder

(D) Not guilty since death was accidental

Ans. (d)

104. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘sedition’?

(A) Section 122 (B) Section 123

Ans. (d)

105. ‘A’ puts his hand in the pocket of ‘B’ for stealing money, but the pocket was empty.

(A) Theft

(B) Attempt to commit theft

(D) No offence

Ans. (b)

106. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with vicarious liability?

(A) Section 120-A

(B) Section 121

(D) Section 159

Ans. (c)

107. Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.

Reason ®: Where the aid of the society cannot be obtained, individual may do everything necessary to protect himself.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and ® are true and ® is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and ® are true, but ® is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) A is false but R is true

Ans. (b)

108. The ingredients of Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code are-

(A) Knowledge of the probability of the commission of the offence

(B) Common intention

(D) Active participation in commission of crime.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

Codes:

(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4

Ans. (d)

109. Assertion (A) :Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.

Reason : Homicide is always unlawful.

Codes:

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(D) A is false but R is true

Ans. (c)

110. Which one of the following is not a correct ingredient of the offence of theft?

(A) Dishonest intention of take property

(B) Property must be movable

(D) Property must be taken without consent of the owner of the property.

Ans. (d)

111. Which one is not an essential ingredient of a crime?

(A) Motive (B) Evil intent

Ans. (a)

112. Common intention means-

(A) Similar intention

(B) Same intention

(D) Common plans

Ans. (c)

113. Sexual intercourse by a man with a woman even with her consent is a rape, if she is below the age of-

(A) 17 years (B) 16 Years

Ans. (b)

114. Which one of the following is not a punishment under Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) Fine

(B) Transportation

(D) Death

Ans. (b)

115. In which of the following case the right of private defence of body does not extend to causing of death?

(A) Assault with the intention of committing kidnapping

(B) Assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust

(D) Assault with the intention of committing abduction

Ans. (c)

116. ‘Unlawful Assembly’ has been defined in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under-

(A) Section 141 (B) Section 146

Ans. (a)

117. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Abetment of an abetment is not an offence

(B) Abetment of illegal omission may be an offence

(D) The person abetted need not be capable by law of committing an offence.

Ans. (a)

118. Attempt to commit robbery is punishable under-

(A) Section 392 I.P.C.

(B) Section 393 I.P.C.

(D) Section 394 I.P.C.

Ans. (b)

119. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of kidnapping under the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Minor Child

(B) Intention of the accused

(D) Out of the keeping of the lawful guardian.

Ans. (b)

120. Making preparation to commit dacoity is punishable in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under.

(A) Section 393 (B) Section 395

Ans. (d)

121. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using the codes given below the lists-

List-I List-II

(Section) (Offence)

(a) Section 463 1. Criminal Trespass

(b) Section 445 2. Forgery

(d) Section 503 4. House-breaking

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 1 3

(B) 2 4 3 1

(D) 1 2 4 3

Ans. (a)

122. The case of GianKaurV/s State of Punjab in related to-:

(A) Murder

(B) Culpable homicide

(D) Attempt to commit suicide

Ans. (d)

123. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court declared Section 303 of the IP. Code as unconstitutional?

(A) Sher Singh V /s State of Punjab

(B) Mithu V/s State of Punjab.

(D) Triveni Ben V/s State of Gujarat

Ans. (b)

124. 'A' removes B's book from his house without his consent with the intention to return it to him if he as a friend rewards him for the return. 'A' is liable for-

(A) Theft

(B) Attempt to theft

(D) Attempt to criminal breach of trust

Ans. (a)

125. 'A' incites 'B' to beat 'C'. Subsequently 'A' reaches the place where 'B' is beating 'C'. 'A' is liable under-

(A) Section 34

(B) Section 114

(D) Section 115

Ans. (c)

126. 'A' cheats by pretending to be 'B', a person who is deceased, 'A' is liable to be punished under-

(A) Section 420 of I.P.C.

(B) Section 419 of I.P.C.

(D) Section 417 of I.P.C.

Ans. (b)

127. In exercise of the right of private defence of property death cannot be caused in the case of-

(A) Robbery

(B) House breaking by night

(D) Theft

Ans. (d)

128. Assertion (A): 'A' a boy aged nine years intentionally kills 'B'. 'A' is liable to be convicted.

Reason (R): A child up to the age of 12 years is immune from criminal liability.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans. (c)

129. In a dark night 'A' and 'B' were fighting. B's wife keeping her child on her shoulder reached there for separating them. In the meantime A's fist fell on the back of the child and the child died' A' is liable for-

(A) Hurt

(B) Grievous hurt

(D) Murder

Ans. (a)

130. In which of the following offences 'Mens rea' Is not an essential ingredient?

(A) Murder (B) Theft

Ans. (d)

131. 'A' beats his wife. She fell down and became unconscious. Believing her to be dead and to save himself from being arrested for murder 'A' hanged her in the fan with rope. Postmortem report disclosed her death from hanging, he is liable for-

(A) No offence

(B) Murder

(D) Causing Death by Negligence

Ans. (d)

132. The word 'good faith' is defined in the Indian Penal Code in-

(A) Section 44 (B) Section 51

Ans. (c)

133. 'A' Is cutting the wood with an axe at a place where children are playing ?The axe files off and kills a nearby child. 'A' is liable for-

(A) No offence

(B) Murder

(D) Causing death by negligence

Ans. (d)

134. Insanity is-

(A) Lack of free will

(B) Incapacity produced due to drunkenness

(D) Diseased mind

Ans. (c)

135. 'A' finds a purse with money, not knowing to whom it belongs; he afterwards discovers that it belongs to 'B' and appropriates to his own use. 'A' is guilty of-

(A) Theft

(B) Criminal misappropriation

(D) Cheating

Ans. (b)

136. Which one of the following Sections of the police Act, 1861 has not been repealed?

(A) Section 06 (B) Section 44

Ans. (b)

137. What is the date of enforcement of the Police (U.P. Amendment) Act, 2001 ?

(A) 15 August, 2001

(B) 26 January, 2001

(D) 14 March, 2001

Ans. (b)

138. Which paragraphs of the U.P. Police Regulations deal with the absconding offences?

(A) 196 to 214 (B) 215 to 222

Ans. (b)

139. Who is the Head of Criminal administration in a District?

(A) Superintendant of Police

(B) District Magistrate

(D) None of the above

Ans. (b)

140. A police constable compels a person to remain in police station on false case of theft and allowing him to go after receiving money from him. He is liable for-

(A) Forgery

(B) Cheating

(D) Wrongful confinement

Ans. (d)

141. Under which Section of Police Act additional police force is provided in a district on certain conditions.

(A) Section 13

(B) Section 16

(D) Section 15

Ans. (d)

142. Under which Section of Police Act the State Government is empowered to make Rules and Regulations governing the service conditions of members of Police Force-

(A) Section 2

(B) Section 3

(D) None of the above

Ans. (a)

143. Which Section of Police Act deals with the duties of police officers?

(A) Section 21 (B) Section 22

Ans. (c)

144. Which one of the following Sections of Police Act contains provisions relating to General Diary?

(A) Section 43 (B) Section 44

Ans. (b)

145. Regulation of public assemblies and processions and licensing of the same is provided in Police Act, 1861 under-

(A) Section 25 Section 28

Ans. (c)

146. Under the U.P. Police Regulations a village chowkidar is responsible to the-

(A) Disrtrict Superintendent of police

(B) Superintendent of Police (Rural)

(D) District Magistrate

Ans. (d)

147. The power of the District Superintendent of Police to regulate the volume of music on the roads on the occasion of festivals is provided under-

(A) Clause 4 of the Section 15-A of the Police Act.

(B) Clause 2 of Section 27 of the Police Act

(D) Clause 3 of Section 16 of the Police Act.

Ans. (c)

148. Under Section 25 of the Police Act, 1861 the charge of unclaimed property is to be take by-

(A) Deputy Superintendent of Police

(B) Superintendent of Police

(D) Every Police Officer

Ans. (d)

149. The statutory powers of the Inspector General of Police under Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 is subject to-

(A) Article 32 of the Constitution of India

(B) Article 226 of the Constitution of India,

(D) Article 309 of the Constitution of India.

Ans. (c)

150. Special Police officer under the Police Act 1861 can be appointed by-

(A) A Magistrate suomotu

(B) The Inspector General of Police

(D) A Magistrate on an application by a Inspector of Police

Ans. (d)

Courtesy:- Legal Point Foundation

Legal Point

02 March, 2016

Solved Question Paper of U.P. A.P.O. Examination, 2002

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