Legal Point: Solved Question Paper of M.P. P.C.S. 'J.' Examination, 2001 (Preliminary Examination)

M.P. P.C.S. 'J.' Examination, 2001

Part-I

General Studies

1. Which of the following sports-persons has participated in the Olympics?

A. Narendra HirWani

B. Ashok Patel

C. Aslam Sher Khan

D. Prakash Saini

Ans. (c)

2. In which district of Madhya Pradesh is one of the regional laboratories of Forest Research Institute, Dehradun Located?

(A) Betul (B) Jabalpur

Ans. (b)

3. How many districts of M.P. at present are categorised as 'developed districts' in terms of the categorisation done in 1990?

(A) 5 (B) 6

Ans. (a)

4. Which district of M.P. has the least area under the Paddy Crop?

(A) Balaghat (B) Morena

Ans. (b)

5. Approximately what percentage of the country's total managanese is extracted in Madhya Pradesh?

(A) 70% (B) 20%

Ans. (c)

6. Which poet is regarded as the first poet of the 'Riti' period of Hindi poetry?

(A) Padmakar (B) Keshav Das

Ans. (b)

7. After the coming into existence of Chhattisgarh State, in which district of Madhya Pradesh is the number of electrified villages the least?

(A) Sheopur (B) Oindori

Ans. (d)

8. In which district of M.P. is the percentage of the gross irrigated area to the gross sown are the smallest?

(A) Sidhi (B) Shahdol

Ans. (a)

9. Which district has the lowest literacy in M.P according to the 1991 census?

(A) Sheopur (B) Jhabua

Ans. (b)

10. When was the 'Pani Roko Abhiyan' started in Madhya Pradesh?

A. 3^rd February, 2001

B. 2^nd October, 2000

C. 7^th May, 2001

D. None of these

Ans. (c)

11. The next Olympic Games will be-

A. Twenty Fourth

B. Twenty Seventh

C. Twenty Ninth

D. Twenty Eighth

Ans. (d)

12 When a ship enters a sea from a river then which of the following statements is true?

A. It rises a little

B. It sinks a little

C. It remains at the same level

D. It rises or sinks depending on the material it is made of

Ans. (a)

13. When does a solar eclipse occur?

A. When the Moon is between the Sun and the Earth

B. When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon

C. When the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon

D. When the Sun, Moon and the Earth are not in the same line.

Ans. (a)

14. Malaria can be treated with a drug extracted from which of the following trees?

(A) Belladonna tree (B) Cinchona tree

Ans. (b)

15. At present Ram is half of his father’s age. Fifteen years ago he was one-third of his father’s age. How old will Ra be after 5 years?

(A) 45 years (B) 40 years

Ans. (c)

16. If the average of fifteen numbers is 41.4, what is the total sum of these fifteen numbers?

(A) 620 (B) 621

Ans. (b)

17. Two persons start from the same point and walk on a circular path at the same speed, but in opposite directions. They will be diametrically opposite each other when each has covered -

A. 1/8 the distance

B. 1/4 the distance

C. 1/2 the distance

D. 1/16 the distance

Ans. (b)

18. A certain sum of money given on loan on simple interest, trebles in 25 years. What is the rate of interest?

(A) 10% (B) 8%

Ans. (b)

19. 25 workers were employed to finish a job in 12 days. Five workers, however, left after working only for 4 days. The rest of the job was completed by remaining 20 workers. In how many days was the total job work completed?

(A) 18 (B) 14

Ans. (b)

20. In one minute 317 of a bucket is filled. How much more time will be required to fill up the rest of the bucket?

(A) 7/3 minutes (B) 4/3 minutes

Ans. (b)

21. Find the missing link in the following series- 12,21,33,13,31, .... ,14, 41, 55

(A) 39 (B) 35

Ans. (c)

22. If a clock gains five minutes every hour, the angle traversed by the seconds hand in one minute will be-

(A) 3600 (B) 360.50

Ans. (c)

23. To which article of the constitution does the decision of the Supreme Court given in September 2001 in respect of the former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu relate?

(A) Article 102 (B) Article 164

Ans. (b)

24. What is the position with respect to powers of contempt available to Lokayukta and Uplokayukta of M.P. similar to the powers of the High Court?

A. The Powers have been given

B. The matter is under consideration

C. The powers have not been given

D. There are no such proposals

Ans. (a)

25. What was the cause-of deaths reported in September 2001 in village Sapalguda of Orissa and published in the newspapers?

A. Due to malnutrition

B. Due to hunger

C. Due to eating mango kernels

D. Due to poisonous drugs.

Ans. (a)

26. What opinion has the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh expressed regarding teaching of Astrology in colleges?

A. Should be taught

B. Should not be taught

C. Should be taught but under certain conditions

D. No opinion expressed

Ans. (b)

27. In which of the following districts of M.P. have naxalite activities been reported?

(A) Bhind (B) Morena

Ans. (d)

28. Who is the Chairman of the Electricity Regulatory Commission of M.P.?

A. Justice Gulab Gupta

B. Justice Sachindra Dwivedi

C. Justice Faizanuddin

D. None of these

Ans. (b)

29. What is 'Tehelka' which was in the news headlines during the year 2001?

A. A newspaper

B. A secret service organisation

C. A news portal on the web

D. None of these

Ans. (c)

30. For which film has Mira Nair received the 'Golden Lion' award in 2001 at the Venice International Film Festival?

A. Hysterical Blindness

B. Mississippi Masala

C. Salam Bombay

D. Monsoon Wedding

Ans. (d)

31. Which Indian received the 'Magsaysay Award' in the year 2001 ?

A. Anil Agrawal

B. Rajendra Singh

C. Baba Amte

D. None of these

Ans. (b)

32. What is NCA?

A. National Capital Area

B. Nature Conservation Agency

C. Narmada Control Authority

D. National College of Aviation

Ans. (a)

33. For which name of rice has an American company got the patent of Basmati rice?

(A) Basmati (B) Ricetek

Ans. (b)

34. What is the name of the recently published book written by the famous French writer Dominique Lapierre?

A. Bhopal Express

B. The Bhopal Midnight

C. The Twelve o'clock Tragedy in Bhopal

D. It was Five Past Midnight in Bhopal

Ans. (d)

35. What is the name of India's surface to air missile which was successfully test fired in Aug. 1994?

(A) Naag (B) Prithvi

Ans. (c)

36. For which purpose out of the following has the 'Lohani Committee' been consitituted in M.P.?

A. For area division between M.P. and Chhattisgarh

B. For recommending sources of finance for the Panchayats

C. For division of Government employees between M.P. and Chhattisgarh

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

37. Who was the Chief Minister of M.P. when Phoolan Devi surrendered?

A. Motilal Vora

B. Digvijay Singh

C. Shyamacharan Shulda

D. Arjun Singh

Ans. (d)

38. When was the much talked of 'Economic Reforms' programme introduced in India?

(A) 1990 (B) 1991

Ans. (d)

39. Who has raised the demand for 'Harit Pradesh'?

A. Rajnath Singh

B. Ajit Singh

C. Mulayam Singh

D. Kalyan Singh

Ans. (b)

40. What does the 91st constitution amendment bill, recently passed by the Lok Sabha deal with?

A. Freezing the number of seats of Lok Sabha only

B. Freezing the number of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats up to the year 2026

C. Removal of the present limit on these seats

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

41. Raising the height of which dam, is being opposed by the Narmada Bachao Andolan?

A. Indira Sagar (M.P.)

B. Omkareshwar (M.P.)

C. Sardar Sarovar (Gujarat)

D. None of these

Ans. (c)

42. Who is known as Britain's 'Iron Lady'?

A. Queen Elizabeth

B. Margaret Thatcher

C. Late Princess Diana

D. Queen Victoria

Ans. (b)

43. Where is the headquarters of 'Rajiv Gandhi Rashtriya Yuva Vikas Sansthan'?

A. New Delhi

B. Amethi (U.P.)

C. Sri Perambudur (Tamil Nadu)

D. Bareilly (U.P.)

Ans. (a)

44. With which game is the 'Uber Cup' associated?

(A) Badminton (B) Cricket

Ans. (a)

45. What is the colour of the ring representing Asian continent in the emblem of the Olympics?

(A) Green (B) Blue

Ans. (a)

46. Where did India win its first Gold Medal in the Olympics?

(A) Berlin (B) Rome

Ans. (a)

47. What is the name of the athlete who refused the national level Arjuna Award for life time achievement in sports?

(A) Malkhan Singh (B) Milkha Singh

Ans. (B)

48. When did Asian games start in lndia?

(A) 1948 (B) 1951

Ans. (d)

49. For which game the 1990-91 Vikram Award winner Ku. Seema Tare, given the award?

A. Kho-Kho

B. Swimming

C. Women's Hockey

D. Table Tennis

Ans. (c)

50. When was the National Cadet Corps (N.C. C.) constituted?

(A) 1948 (B) 1950

Ans. (a)

51. How many wickets did Sri Lanka's bowler Mutthiah Muralidharan take in the test series of cricket played between India and Sri Lanka in August 2001?

(A) 40 (B) 30

Ans. (c)

52. What is the targeted average annual growth rate for the Ninth Five-Year Plan?

(A) 7% (B) 6.5%

Ans. (c)

53. What was the approximate overall industrial growth rate in India during 2000-2001?

(A) 10% (B) 8%

Ans. (d)

54. What is the targeted production of food grains for India for the Ninth Five Year Plan?

A. Approximately 23 crore tons

B. Approximately 20 crore tons

C. Approximately 26 crore tons

D. None of the above

Ans. (c)

55. With which subject' Rajamannar Committee was concerned?

A. Industrial licensing

B. Direct Taxes

C. Centre-State financial relations

D. Monetary system

Ans. (a)

56. For which of the following areas is a Lead Bank responsible under the 'Lead Bank Scheme'?

(A) Village (B) Town

Ans. (c)

57. Income of which of the following taxes is not shared by the Central Government with the States?

A. Union Excise Duties

B. Customs Duty

C. Income Tax

D. Estate Duty

Ans. (a)

58. After the expiry of how many years is the next Finance Commission constituted?

(A) 3 (B) 5

Ans. (b)

59. Through which of the following Banks does the Reserve Bank of India help finance India's foreign trade?

A. NABARD

B. EximBank

C. State Bank of India

D. IDBI

Ans. (d)

60. Where is the Hasedo-Bango Project located?

(A) M.P. (B) Assam

Ans. (a)

61. When did USA's President Mr. Bush announce the lifting of economic sanctions imposed on India by USA?

A. On 11^th September, 2001

B. On the night of Saturday 22^nd September, 2001

C. On 24^th September, 2001

D. No such announcement has been made

Ans. (b)

62. Where does teak grow most abundantly?

A. The Himalayas

B. The Western Ghats

C. Central India

D. Assam and Meghalaya

Ans. (c)

63. Which of the following is one of the most prominent crops of dry farming in India?

A. Paddy

B. Wheat

C. Bajra

D. Sugarcane

Ans. (c)

64. Which one of the tributaries of the ‘Ganga System’ flows northwards?

(A) Kosi (B) Ghaghre

Ans. (c)

65. In which state, according to 2001 census do women outnumber men?

(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala

Ans. (b)

66. Which countries are separated by the Durand Line?

A. India and Pakistan

B. India and Afghanistan

C. Indian and China

D. China and USSR

Ans. (b)

67. How many times has the preamble of the Constitution of Indian been amended so far?

(A) Not even once (B) Four times

Ans. (d)

68. Who out of the following remained the Prime Minister of India for the longest period?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Lal Bahadur Shastri

C. Indira Gandhi

D. Both A and C

Ans. (a)

69. When and by which constitutional amendment were the fundamental duties included in the constitution?

A. In 1974, through 34^th constitutional amendment

B. In 1976, through 42^nd constitutional amendment

C. In 1992, throught 73^rd constitutional amendment

D. None of the above

Ans. (b)

70. Which three Indian states were bifurcated to create 3 new states in India?

A. Orissa, M.P. Bihar

B. Bihar, M.P., U.P.

C. M.P., Rajasthan, Bihar

D. U.P., M.P., Wes Bengal

Ans. (b)

71. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of the Parliament to amend the constitution but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the constitution?

A. Keshavanand Bharti Case

B. Golak Nath Case

C. Minerva Mills Case

D. All of these

Ans. (d)

72. When and where did the Commonwealth Games commence?

(A) 1934, London (B) 1911, London

Ans. (c)

73. Where were the Winter Olympics held in the year 2002?

(A) Hawaii (B) Salt Lake City

Ans. (b)

74. Who, in the ladies final of the ‘Toyota Princess Cup Tournament’ of tennis, played in Tokyo in September 2001, won the title?

(A) Kim Clisters (B) Leone Gracia

Ans. (a)

75. Who first referred to Mahatma Gandhi as ‘Father of the Nation’?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Vallabhbhai Patel

C. C. Rajagopalachari

D. Subhash Chandra Bose

Ans. (d)

76. In which country is Angkor What which has a famous Vishnu Temple?

(A) Java (B) Bali

Ans. (c)

77. Which foreign traveler visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana?

(A) Yueh-Chih (B) Fa-Hien

Ans. (c)

78. What is the subject matter of the Upanishads?

(A) Religion (B) Yoga

Ans. (c)

79. During the rule of the Mauryan dynasty which two places were connected by the road which is nowadays known as the Grand Trunk Road?

A. Khorasan and Varanasi

B. Taxila and Pataliputra

C. Sanchi and Nasik

D. None of these

Ans. (b)

80. Who, out of the following persons; established the All the India Harijan Sangh?

A. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

C. Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Ans. (c)

81. Who wrote the book 'Harshacharit'?

(A) Banabhatta (B) Bhasa

Ans. (a)

82. Closest to which big city, located at the bank of river Ganga is Sarnath situated?

(A) Gaya (B) Faizabad

Ans. (c)

83. Which of the following districts of M.P. is the smallest in terms of population?

(A) Datia (B) Umaria

Ans. (d)

84. The founder of Indian National Congress, Allan Octavian Hume was-

A. A military officer of the British government

B. A political worker

C. An educationist

D. A former ICS officer

Ans. (d)

85. Who represented India in the World Congress of Religions held in Chicago in 1893?

A. Swami Oayanand

B. Swami Vivekanand

C. Ramkrishna Paramhans

D. Swami Ramitrtha

Ans. (b)

86. What is 'Gyandoot Scheme' started in the Dhar district of M.P.?

A. A Village Education Scheme

B. A series of discourses of Swami Chinmayanand on Gita

C. A project connected with the modem information technology

D. A general knowledge competition

Ans. (a)

87. Whose signatures do all other notes except a one-rupee note bear?

A. The President of India

B. The Prime Minister of India

C. The Finance Secretary of the Government of India

D. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India

Ans. (d)

88. The doctrine of 'Panchasheel' was first advocated by-

A. India and Myanmar

B. India and Pakistan

C. India and Indonesia

D. India and Algeria

Ans. (b)

89. The total number of Tehsils in Madhya Pradesh is-

(A) 354 (B) 459

Ans. (d)

90. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India are 'Scheduled Areas' declared?

A. Schedule 2

B. Schedule 9

C. Schedule 5

D. None of these

Ans. (c)

91. Under which article of the Constitution of India is 'Abolition of Untouchability' provided for?

(A) Article 16 (B) Article 18

Ans. (c)

92. Which of the following alternatives corresponds to the percentage of the forest area of M.P. to the state's total geographical area?

(A) 40% (B) 23.76%

Ans. (d)

93. During which Five-Y scheme 'Food for Work' started?

A. Fourth Five-Year Plan

B. Fifth Five-Year Plan

C. Sixth Five-Year Plan

D. Eighth Five-Year Plan

Ans. (c)

94. Which of the following books has not been written by R.K. Narayan?

A. Swami And Friends

B. The Serpent And the Rope

C. The Guide

D. Waiting For the Mahatma

Ans. (d)

95. During which decade was the average annual growth rate of population of India less than 1%?

(A) 1921-31 (B) 1931-41

Ans. (b)

96. When was the 'Family Planning Programme' launched by the Govt. of India?

(A) 1947 (B) 1951

Ans. (c)

97. When did World Trade Organisation come into existence?

A. 1990

B. 1991

C. 1995

D. None of these years

Ans. (c)

98. Jaundice occurs due to malfunctioning of which part of the body?

(A) Kidney (B) Liver

Ans. (b)

99. In the year 2000 the world population has become approximately equal to which of the following numbers?

(A) 4 Billion (B) 5 Billion

Ans. (c)

100. How many Lok Sabha seats are there in M.P.?

(A) 40 (B) 29

Ans. (b)

Part-II

Law

1. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as an Additional Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate for not less than-

(A) Five (B) Six

Ans. (c)

2. The Central Government or the State Government may appoint for the purposes of any case or class of cases, a person who has been in practice as advocate for not less than-

(A) Five (B) Seven

Ans. (d)

3. The Court of a Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding-

(A) Three years (B) Five years

Ans. (a)

4. The Court of a Magistrate of the second class may pass a sentence of fine not exceeding-

(A) One thousand (B) Three thousand

Ans. (c)

5. If a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody he escaped may, immediately pursue and arrest him-

A. Within local limits of the police station concerned

B. Within local limits of the district

C. Within local limits of the state

D. In any place in India

Ans. (d)

6. In proceeding under Section 107 of Code of Criminal Procedure an Executive Magistrate may require to execute a bond for keeping peace for such period, not exceeding-

A. One year

B. Two years

C. Three years

D. Six months as the Magistrate thinks fit.

Ans. (a)

7. In reference of information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, which of the following statements is not correct?

A. It may be given orally to an officer incharge of a police station

B. It is reduced to writing by or under the direction of the officer incharge of the police station

C. Information reduced to writing is to be signed by the person giving it

D. Copy of information cannot be given, free of cost, to the informant

Ans. (d)

8. Any person, who has accepted a tender of pardon made under Section 306 or Section 307, has, either by willfully concealing anything essential or by giving false evidence, not complied with the condition on which the tender was made. Who will certify this fact?

A. District Magistrate

B. Sessions Judge

C. Public Prosecutor

D. Chief Judicial Magistrate

Ans. (c)

9. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure is dead then-

A. Offence cannot be compounded

B. Offence can be compounded by any of the eye-witnesses

C. Legal representative of such person can compound the offence without the con sent of the Court

D. Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the Court

Ans. (d)

10. At any time before the Judgment is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be with drawn with the consent of the Court by-

A. On whose instance first information report was recorded

B. Investigating officer of the case

C. Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor incharge of the case

D. Person aggrieved by the offence

Ans. (c)

11. Magistrate by whom the case is heard may award such compensation, not exceeding-

(A) One hundred (B) Five hundred

(C) Three hundred (D) One thousand rupees to be paid to any person groundlessly arrested by the person so causing the arrest.

Ans. (d)

12. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding-

A. One hundred

B. Two hundred

C. Three hundred

D. Two hundred and fifty rupees.

Ans. (a)

13. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only, after the expiry of the period of limitation of-

(A) Two months (B) Three months

Ans. (d)

14. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence punish able with imprisonment for a term not exceeding-

(A) One year (B) Three years

Ans. (b)

15. That there are certain' objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place-

(A) Is a fact (B) Is an opinion

Ans. (a)

16. An inscription on a metal plate or stone-

(A) Is a fact (B) Is a document

Ans. (b)

17. 'A' is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked and goals are broken open. 'A' is not present at all of them yet the occurrence of these facts is relevant because-

A. They constitute a motive for relevant fact

B. They show preparation for relevant facts

C. They are effect of relevant facts

D. They form part of the general transaction

Ans. (d)

18. 'A' sues 'B' for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to 'A'. 'B' affirms that the matter alleged to be libelous is true. The position and relations of the parties at the time when the libel was published may be relevant-

A. As constituting a motive for fact in issue

B. As conduct influenced by fact in issue

C. As introductory to facts in issue

D. As preparation for fact in issue

Ans. (c)

19. The question is, whether 'A' committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. The fact that, on that day, 'A' was at Lahore is relevant-

A. As a motive for fact in issue

B. As introductory to fact in issue

C. As preparation of relevant fact

D. As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly improbable

Ans. (d)

20. 'A' is accused of defaming 'B' by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of ''. The fact of previous publication by 'A' respecting 'B', showing ill-will on the part of 'A' towards 'B' is relevant-

A. Because it proves the preparation for harming 'A's' reputation

B. As it is necessary to explain fact in issue

C. As proving intention to harm 'B's' reputation

D. As it is the effect of relevant fact

Ans. (c)

21. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Admissions could be oral only

B. Admissions could be documentary only

C. Admissions could be oral or documentary

D. Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

Ans. (c)

22. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. No fact of which the Court will take notice need be proved

B. Facts admitted need not be proved

C. All facts and the contents of documents may be proved by oral evidence

D. Oral evidence must be direct

Ans. (c)

23. A document is said to be in the handwriting of 'A'. That document is produced from proper custody. If the document is purporting or proved to be-

(A) Thirty (B) Fifteen

Ans. (a)

24. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence by writing in open Court. Evidence so given shall be deemed to be-

A. Oral evidence

B. Documentary evidence

C. Primary evidence

D. Secondary evidence

Ans. (a)

25. The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called-

A. Main examination

B. Additional Cross-examination

C. Re-examination

D. Recross-examination

Ans. (c)

26. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then-

A. He becomes a witness

B. He is cross-examined by both the parties

C. He is cross-examined with the permission of the Court

D. He does not become witness and cannot be cross-examined unless and until he is called as a witness

Ans. (d)

27. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called-

A. Indecent question

B. Scandalous question

C. Question intended to annoy

D. Leading question

Ans. (d)

28. 'Accommodation' means any building or part of building whether residential or non residential and does not include-

A. Garden appurtenant to such building

B. Grounds appurtenant to such building

C. Any land which is being used fa agricultural purposes

D. Any furniture supplied by the landlord for use in such building

Ans. (c)

29. Suit against a tenant for his eviction from any accommodation could be filed on the ground that the tenant has neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrear of the rent legally recoverable from him within-

A. Thirty days

B. Two months

C. Fifteen days

D. Sixty days of the date on which a notice of demand fa the arrears of rent has been served on him by the landlord in the prescribed manner.

Ans. (b)

30. Suit for eviction on the ground under Section 12(1) (d) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act is filed if the accommodation has not been used without reasonable cause for which it was let, for a continuous period of-

(A) Three months (B) Six months

(C) Ninety days (D) Two months immediately preceding the date of the filiru of suit for the recovery of possession there of

Ans. (b)

31. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made on the ground that the accommodation is required bonafidely the landlord for occupation as a residence for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession there of before the expiration of period of-

(A) Two months (B) Three months

Ans. (a)

32. If after the tenant has delivered possession on or before the date specified in the order under clause (g) or clause (h) of sub-Section(1) of Section 12 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, landlord fails to commence the work of repairs or building or rebuilding within-

(A) Two months (B) Three months

(C) One month (D) Six months of the specified date on an application made to it, Court may order landlord to place the tenant in occupation of the accommodation or part thereof.

Ans. (c)

33. When an application for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement is filed before the Rent Controlling Authority and summons In prescribed form is served on the tenant, he shall not contest the prayer for eviction from accommodation unless he files application, in prescribed manner, to obtain leave to contest within-

(A) Thirty days (B) One month

(C) Fifteen days (D) Two months from the date of service of the summons and obtains leave from the Rent Controlling Authority as provided.

Ans. (c)

34. A landlord making false and frivolous application under Section 23(A) of M. P. Accommodation Control Act, may be saddled with compensatory costs not exceeding-

A. Six month's

B. Nine month's

C. Eleven month's

D. One year's rent of the accommodation at a time.

Ans. (d)

35. The stay of the operation of the order of eviction passed by a Rent Controlling Authority or by the High Court shall not be for a total period of more than-

(A) Two months (B) Four months

Ans. (c)

36. Every tenant shall pay rent within the time fixed by the contract or in absence of any such contract by the-

(A) Sixteenth day (B) Twenty-first day

Ans. (c)

37. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut-off by the landlord, who will make an order to restore such supply?

A. Collector

B. Civil Court

C. Rent Controlling Authority

D. Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be

Ans. (c)

38. If the essential supply enjoyed by the tenenat is found to be cut-off by the landlord without just and sufficient cause, Rent Controlling Authority may direct that compensation not exceeding-

A. One hundred rupees

B. Three hundred rupees

C. Five hundred rupees

D. Fifty rupees to be paid by the landlord to the tenant.

Ans. (d)

39. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within-

(A) Six months (B) One year

Ans. (d)

40. Provisions of Transfer of Property Act shall be applicable-

A. Where property is transferred in execution of decree of the Court

B. Where the property of insolvent vests in Receiver by the order of the Court

C. Where the property is transferred by the act of parties

D. To intestate succession

Ans. (c)

41. 'Attested' in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by at least-

A. One witness

B. Two witnesses

C. Three witnesses

D. Four witnesses

Ans. (b)

42. Which one of the following statements is not correct, in context of 'transfer of property' ?

A. It means an act by which a living person conveys property

B. He conveys property in present or in future

C. He conveys property to one or more other living persons

D. He cannot transfer property to himself and one or more other living persons

Ans. (d)

43. To be competent to transfer property it is not essential that-

A. Person be major

B. Person be of sound mind

C. Person is competent to contract

D. Transferable property is his own

Ans. (d)

44. How many types of mortgages are there in Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Four (B) Five

Ans. (c)

45. A mortgagor who has executed two or more mortages in favour of the same mortgagee, in absence of a contract to the contrary-

A. Is bound to redeem all such mortgages together

B. Is not entitled to redeem anyone such mortgage separately

C. Is bound to redeem at least two such mortgages together

D. Be entitled to redeem anyone such mortgage separately, or any two or more of such mortgages together

Ans. (d)

46. A lease of immoveable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee, by-

(A) One month (B) Six months

Ans. (b)

47. A lease of immoveable property from year to year, can be made by-

A. Oral agreement

B. Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession .

C. Simple instrument

D. Only by a registered instrument

Ans. (d)

48. Where a lease of immoveable property is made by a registered instrument, such instrument shall be executed-

A. By lessor only

B. By leassee only

C. By either of the two

D. By both the lessor and the lessee

Ans. (d)

49. What is not required in 'Gift'?

A. Donor and donee

B. Consideration

C. Moveable or immoveable property

D. Transfer and acceptance

Ans. (b)

50. For the purpose of making a gift of immoveable property, the transfer must be affected-

A. By delivery of possession

B. By a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and duly attested

C. By simple instrument

D. By simple instrument accompanied by' delivery of possession

Ans. (b)

51. A gift comprising both existing and future property-

A. Is void

B. Is valid

C. Is void as to the existing property

D. Is void as to the future property.

Ans. (d)

52. A patient in a lunatic asylum, who is at intervals of sound mind-

A. May not contract

B. May contract

C. May contract during those intervals when he is of sound mind

D. May contract only after he becomes completely of sound mind

Ans. (c)

53. Number of ingredients of 'Promise' is-

(A) Two (B) Three

Ans. (a)

54. A proposal when accepted -

A. Becomes a promise

B. Becomes an agreement

C. Becomes a contract

D. Becomes a consideration

Ans. (a)

55. A contract without consideration will be-

(A) Voidable (B) Void

Ans. (b)

56. 'A' promises to paint a picture for 'B'-

A. 'A' may employ a competent person to perform the promise

B. Representatives of 'A' may employ a competent person for the purpose

C. 'A's' sons may perform the promise

D. 'A' must perform this promise personally

Ans. (d)

57. Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person other than a minor-

A. Is voidable

B. Is illegal

C. Is void

D. Is valid

Ans. (c)

58. In the case of an alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other iIIegal-

A. Such a promise can be enforced

B. Any of its branch cannot be enforced

C. The legal branch alone can be enforced

D. With the permission of the court, both the branches can be enforced

Ans. (c)

59. A contracts to sing for B at a concert for 1,000 rupees which are paid in advance. A is too ill to sing-

A. A is bound only to make compensation to B for the loss of the profits which B would have made if A had been able to sing but not bound to refund 1,000 paid in advance

B. A is neither bound to refund 1,000 rupees paid in advance nor is bound to make compensation to B for the loss of profits which B would have made if A had been able to sing

C. A is not bound to make compensation to B for the loss of profits which B would have made if A had been able to sing, but must refund to B the 1,000 rupees paid in advance

D. A is not bound to make compensation to B for the loss of profits which B would have made if A had been able to sing but must refund to B half of the amount paid in advance

Ans. (c)

60. A leaves a cow in the custody of B to be taken care of. The cow has a calf. In the absence of any contract to the contrary-

1. B is bound to deliver only the cow to A

2. B is bound to deliver the calf as well as the cow to A

3. B is bound to deliver the calf as well as the cow if he is paid half the price of the calf

4. B is bound to deliver the calf as well as the cow if he is paid one-third of the price of the calf

Ans. (b)

61. Finder of a lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, may sell it when the lawful charges 0f the finder, in respect of the thing found amount to-

A. One-fourth

B. Half

C. One-third

D. Two-thirds of its value.

Ans. (d)

62. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to 'sub-agent'?

A. He is employed by the principal in the business of the agency

B. He is employed by the original agent in the business of the agency

C. He acts under the control of the principal

D. The agent is not responsible to the principal for the acts of the sub-agent

Ans. (b)

63. A gives authority to B to sell A's land and to pay himself out of the proceeds, the debts due to him from A. In the absence of an express contract-

A. A can revoke this authority

B. Authority can be terminated by the insanity of A

C. Authority can be terminated by the death of A

D. A cannot revoke this authority, nor can it be terminated by his death or insanity

Ans. (d)

64. 'Agriculture' does not include-

(A) Horticulture

(B) The planting and unkeep of orchards

(D) Forest of big bushes

Ans. (d)

65. 'To cultivate personally.' does not mean to cultivate' on one's own account-

(A) By the labour of any member of one's family

(B) By servants on wages payable in crop share

(D) By hired labour under personal supervision of any member of one's family

Ans. (b)

66. Revenue inspectors, Measurers and Patwaris shall not enter into any building or upon any enclosed court or garden attached to a dwelling house without the consent of-

(A) Collector

(B) Tehsildar

(D) Occupier thereof

Ans. (d)

67. Which Revenue Officer cannot make over any case for enquiry and report from his own file to any Revenue officer subordinate to him?

(A) Sub-divisional Officer

(B) Collector

(D) Tehsildar

Ans. (c)

68. A party against whom an order has been passed in his absence by a Revenue Officer may apply to have it set-aside within-

(A) Sixty days (B) Two months

from the date of order or knowledge or the order in case summons was not duly served.

Ans. (d)

69. A Revenue Officer may award costs incurred in any case or proceeding arising under M.P. Land Revenue Code to the extent-

(A) Three hundred rupees

(B) Five hundred rupees

(D) As he thinks fit

Ans. (d)

70. Which one of the following shall not be taken into account in estimating the cost of cultivation?

(A) Market value of the land

(B) The depreciation of stock and buildings

(D) The money equivalent of the cultivator’s family’s labour and supervision

Ans. (a)

71. Any person lawfully acquiring any right of interest in land, shall under Section 109 of M.P. L.R.C., report his acquisition of such right to-

(A) Collector

(B) Sub-divisional officer

(D) Revenue-Inspector

Ans. (c)

72. All disputes regarding boundaries of villages survey numbers and plot numbers, where such boundaries have been fixed under the provisions of Section 124 of M.P. L.R.C. shall be decided-

(A) By Collector

(B) By Sub-divisional Officer

(D) By Tehsildar

Ans. (d)

73. Where the boundary has been fixed under the provisions of Section 124 of M.P. L.R.C. and if a person holding wrongful possession over any land has been summarily ejected from such land, he may withing the period of-

(A) Two years

(B) One years

(D) Four years

from the date of ejectment, institute a civil suit to establish his title thereto.

Ans. (b)

74. By whose order the tenancy of an occupancy tenant in his holding can be terminated?

(A) The Collector

(B) The Tehshildar

(D) The Commissioner

Ans. (c)

75. Allotment of house site under Gramin Avas Yojna to a landless person shall be subject to condition that the allottee shall build a house on such land within a period of-

(A) One Year

(B) Three years

(D) Seven years

from the date of allotment

Ans. (c)

76. In refrence of District Court, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) It can transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before it for trial to any Court subordinate to it and competent to try or dispose of the same.

(B) It can withdraw any suit and appeal or other proceeding pending in any Court subordinate to it.

(C) It can try or dispose of the suit, appeal or other proceeding withdrawn from any Court subordinate to it or it may transfer the same for trial or disposal to some other Court subordinate to it and competent to try or dispose of the same

(D) It cannot retransfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding to the Court from which it was withdrawn.

Ans. (d)

77. Under Section 34 of Civil Procedure Code, Court can award interest from the date of decree to the date of payment or such earlier date as the Court thinks fit. Rate of such interest shall not exceed per annum.

(A) Nine percent (B) Ten percent

Ans. (c)

78. Any amount which a Court will order to be paid as compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences, shall not exceed the amount of-

(A) Two thousand rupees or the amount with in its pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less.

(B) Three thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction, which ever is less.

(D) Fiver thousand rupees or the amount within its pecuniary jurisdiction which ever is less.

Ans. (b)

79. During the proceeding of execution of a decree, a question arises as to whether any person is or is not the reprentative of a party, such question shall be determined by-

(A) The court which passed the decree

(B) The court executing the decree

(D) A separate suit

Ans. (b)

80. A judgement debtor is arrested in execution of a decree for the payment of money and the Judgement debtor pays the amount of the decree and the costs of the arrest to the officer arresting him, such officer-

(A) Shall send the judgment debtor to civil prison.

(B) Shall take judgment to the court

(D) Shall release him after taking security from him.

Ans. (c)

81. Under Section 80 of Civil Procedure Code-

(A) Ninety days (B) Sixty days

notice in writing is required to be delivered before institution of a suit against the Government.

Ans. (d)

82. ‘A’ lets a house to ‘B’ at a yearly rent of rupees five hundred. The rent for the whole of the years 1905, 1906 and 1907 is due and unpaid. ‘A” sues ‘B’ in 1908 only for the rent due for 1906-

(A) ‘A’ can afterwards sue ‘B’ only for the rent due for 1905

(B) ‘A’ can afterwards sue ‘B’ for the rent due for 1905 and 1907

(D) ‘A’ cannot afterwards sue ‘B’ for the rent due for 1905 or 1907

Ans. (d)

83. Any court will order a party who resides without the local limits of the court’s ordinary original jurisdiction, to appear in person, if he resides-

(A) Within India

(B) Within the local limits of that state in which the court is situated

(D) Within certain limits from the place where the court Is situated

Ans. (d)

84. A suit may be dismissed where, after a summons has been issued to the defendant and returned unserved, plaintiff fails to apply for fresh summons for the period of-

(A) Thirty days (B) Sixty days

from the date of such return.

Ans. (c)

85. Date appointed by any Court for presenting list of witnesses by the parties to obtain summons to them for their attendance in Court, shall not be later than-

(A) Ten days (B) Fifteen days

Ans. (b)

86. In a suit, plaintiff himself wishes to appear as a witness. Without any permission of Court, he may so appear-

(A) At any time before evidence from plain tiff’s side is over

(B) At any time before evidence from defendant’s side is over

(D) Only before any other witness on his behalf has been examined.

Ans. (d)

87. After the passing of a decree for payment of money, on the application of the Judgment debtor, Court shall not order that payment of the amount of decree shall be made by installments-

(A) Without recording evidence of both parties

(B) Without obtaining affidavits from both parites.

(D) Without the consent of decree-holder

Ans. (d)

88. ‘A’ who is a citizen of India commits murder in Uganda. He is arrested in Delhi. HE can be tried and convicted of murder-

(A) Only in Uganda

(B) Only in that country of which the deceased was a citizen

(D) In Delhi

Ans. (d)

89. Which of the following punishments cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Forfeiture of property

(B) Imprisonment with hard labour

(D) Death

Ans. (c)

90. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend there the amount of fine to which the offender may be liable will be-

(A) Not exceeding rupees fifty thousand

(B) Not exceeding rupees twenty-five thousand

(D) Unlimited but not excessive

Ans. (d)

91. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under-

(A) Eight years (B) Ten years

Ans. (c)

92. Minimum number of persons required to form an ‘ unlawful assembly’ is-

(A) Seven (B) Five

Ans. (b)

93. Minimum number of persons required to Commit an affray is-

(A) Five (B) Two

Ans. (b)

94. ‘Y’ gives grave and sudden provocation to ‘A”. ‘A’ on this provocation, fires a pistol at ‘Y’ neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘Z’ who is near him, but out of sight. ‘A’ kills ‘Z’. ‘A’ is guilty of-

(A) Murder

(B) Culpable homicide

(D) No offence as act falls under general exceptions.

Ans. (b)

95. Any hurt is 'grievous' if it causes the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during the-space of-

(A) Fifteen days (B) Twenty days

Ans. (b)

96. How many kinds of kidnapping are there in the Indian Penal Code?

(A) One (B) Two

Ans. (b)

97. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child

(A) Ten (B) Twelve

Ans. (a)

98. What is minimum number of persons required to commit 'dacoity'?

(A) Five (B) Six

Ans. (a)

99. 'A' has sexual intercourse with an adult married woman whom he knows to be wife of another man, without the consent or connivance of that man but with the consent of that woman. 'A' is guilty of-

(A) Rape (B) Adultery

Ans. (b)

100. State Government may, by notification declare any area to be a metropolitan area for the purposes of the Code of Criminal Procedure whose population exceeds-

(A) Ten lakhs (B) Five lakhs

Ans. (a)

Courtesy:- Legal Point Foundation

Legal Point

02 March, 2016

Solved Question Paper of M.P. P.C.S. 'J.' Examination, 2001 (Preliminary Examination)

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