Delhi
Assistant Public Prosecutors Pre. Exam. 2008
1. A is at work with a hatchet : the head
files off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, there was no want of proper
care and caution on the part of A, A is guilty of which of the following?
A.
Murder
B.
Causing death by negligence
C.
Culpable homicide not amount to murder
D.
No offence
Ans. (d)
2. A a carrier, is entrusted by Z with
property to be carried by water. A dishonestly misappropriates the property. A
has committed which one of the following?
A.
Criminal breach of trust
B.
Criminal misappropriation of property
C.
Habitually dealing in stolen property
D.
Cheating
Ans. (a)
3. When
can leading questions be asked under Section 142 of the Evidence Act?
A.
If objected by the adverse party in
examination in chief
B.
If objected by the adverse party in
re-examination
C.
If objected by the adverse party in
cross examination
D.
If adverse party asks for permission to
the court and is refused
Ans. (c)
4. Cross examination under Section 137 of
the Evidence Act means which one of the following?
A.
Examination of a witness by a party who
calls him
B.
Examination of a witness by the adverse
party
C.
Examination of a witness by a party who calls him and the adverse party
D.
Examination of a witness by the court
Ans. (b)
5. What is the number of witnesses
required for the proof of any fact in any case?
A.
One
B.
Two
C.
Three
D.
No particular number
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following statements
is/are not true?
A.
An accomplice is a competent witness
against an accused person.
B.
Conviction on the testimony of an accomplice
is legal.
C.
Conviction on the testimony of an
accomplice is legal only if it is corroborated.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below?
A.
1, 2 and 3
B.
1 and 2
C.
3 only
D.
1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
7. Which one of the following statements
is not true?
The
professional communication between an advocate and his client can be disclosed
before the Court
A.
with the consent of the client
B.
without the consent of the client
C.
without the consent of the client if
made in furtherance of any illegal purpose.
D.
without the consent of the client if the
advocate comes to know that any crime or fraud has been committed since the
commencement of his employment.
Ans. (b)
8. What
is the evidentiary value of evidence given by husband against wife and vice
versa under the Indian Evidence Act 1872?
A.
Both cannot adduce evidence
B.
Both are considered one identity in law,
therefore one cannot adduce evidence against the other
C.
Evidence can be adduced only in criminal
proceedings by both
D.
Evidence can be adduced by both in civil
and criminal proceedings.
Ans. (d)
9. Who
among the following is competent to adduce evidence under Indian Evidence Act?
A.
Dumb witness
B.
Deaf witness
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
10. Under
which Section of the Indian Evidence act the presumption as to abetment of
suicide by a married woman is dealt?
A.
Section 113 A
B.
Section 113 B
C.
Section 114
D.
Section 114 B
Ans. (a)
11. The
Court draws a presumption of legitimacy when any person is born during the
continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man.
This
presumption is relevant under Section 112 of the Evidence Act when there is a
dispute relating to the
A.
maternity of the child
B.
paternity of the child
C.
both maternity and paternity
D.
guardianship of the child
Ans. (b)
12. Consider the following statements:
A.
The police officer is not bound to give
information about the arrest of the accused to any of his relations friends.
B.
A registered medical practitioner cannot
use force to examine a person accused of rape sent by the police for such
examination.
which
of the statement given above is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
13. Match
List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List – I List-II
|
A.
|
Two
or more persons agree to do an illegal act
|
1.
Abetment
|
|
B.
|
Five
or more persons unitedly commit robbery
|
2.
Joint Liability
|
|
C.
|
One
person instigates another to do an
illegal act
|
3.
Criminal Conspiracy
|
|
D.
|
Offence
done by several person in furtherance of the common intention
|
4.
Dacoity
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
4
|
1
|
3
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
3
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
2
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
1
|
4
|
2
|
Ans. (c)
14. With a view to taking some jewels, A
opens a box by breaking it and finds that there is no jewel in it. In this case
A is guilty of
A. Abetment
of theft
B.
Extortion
C.
Attempt to commit theft
D. No
offence because he could not find any jewel in it.
Ans. (c)
15. A is
a warehouse keeper. B going on a journey entrusts his household goods to
A under a contract that they shall be returned on payment of a stipulated sum
for warehouse room. A dishonestly sells the goods. A is guilty is
A.
Committing criminal breach
B.
Committing criminal misappropriation of
the property
C.
Committing theft
D.
Committing cheating
Ans. (a)
16. A finds a valuable diamond. Not knowing
to whom it belongs. A sells it immediately without attempting to discover the
owner. A is
A.
Guilty of theft as it is causing wrongful
gain to him.
B.
Guilty of criminal breach of truse
C.
Guilty of extortion
D.
Guilty of criminal misappropriation of
property
Ans. (d)
17. Consider
the following statements:
The accused at the time of
committing the act because of intoxication, which was administered to him
without his knowledge or against his
will, is incapable of knowing.
A.
the nature of the act
B.
that the act is wrong or contrary to law
C.
that the act is immoral or wrong
D.
that the act is of nature which may be
ignored.
To claim the benefit of Section 85
of IPC, which of the above need to be proved?
A. 1
and 4
B.
1 and 3
C.
1 and 2
D.
2 and 4
Ans. (c)
18. Consider
the following statements:
A.
Mens rea is not an essential ingredient
in
B.
cases not criminal in any real sense but
which in the public interest are prohibited under a penalty.
C.
cases which are in the nature of public
nuisance.
D.
cases criminal in form but which are
really only a summary mode of enforcing a civil right.
Ans. (a)
19. Which
one of the following is an exception to the offence of murder?
A.
An act justified by law to kill a person
B.
Killing a person having been intoxicated
without one’s consent
C.
Aiding suicide with the consent of
deceased adult
D.
Killing a man in an accident caused by
negligent driving.
Ans. (c)
20. A person is compelled to join a gang of
dacoits by reason of threat of being beaten. Which one of the following
suggestions is correct in this case?
A.
He is not liable for any offence
B.
He is liable for the offence even though
he joined the gang out of fear.
C.
He is not liable as there was instant
fear of his death at the hands of dacoits.
D.
He will be liable for all dacoities
committed by that gang.
Ans. (d)
21. Strict
liability is imposed in which of the following situations?
A. Commission
of crime with intention?
B.
An act which amounts to a crime even
though it is committed without any intention.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below;
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
22. Under IPC, when the offence is punishable
with both imprisonment and fine a sentence of imprisonment for nonpayment of
fine shall not exceed.
A.
One half of the maximum term of
imprisonment fixed for the offence
B.
Maximum term of imprisonment fixed for
the offence
C.
One fourth of the maximum term of
imprisonment fixed for the offence
D.
One third of the maximum term of
imprisonment fixed for the offence.
Ans. (c)
23. Consider
the following statements:
A.
A willfully by a misrepresentation
misled a police officer to arrest B instead of C.
B.
A instigates B to murder C, B refuses to
do so.
C.
A instigates B to murder D, B stabs D. D
survives from would.
Which of the above constitute the
offence of abetments?
A.
1, 2 and 3
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
24. Consider
the following statements:
A.
The medical examination of a rape victim
shall be conducted by
B.
Any registered medical practitioner of
her choice.
C.
A registered practitioner employed in a
hospital run by Government or by a local authority.
D.
Any registerd medical practitioner with
the consent of the victim under some special circumstances.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
3 only
D.
1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
25. Match
List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List – I List-II
|
A.
|
R.C.
Cooper v. Union of India
|
1.
Privy Purses
|
|
B.
|
Madhavrao
Scindia v. Union of India
|
2.
Pith and Substance
|
|
C.
|
Prafulla
Kumar Banerjee v. Bank of Commerce
|
3.
National Security Act
|
|
D.
|
A.K.
Roy v. Union of India
|
4.
Bank Nationalisation
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
1
|
2
|
4
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
2
|
1
|
3
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
Ans. (d)
26. In which one of the following cases did
the Supreme Court uphold the law which had prohibited a person from contesting
panchayat elections if he/she had more than two living children?
A.
Javed v. State of Haryanc
B.
Jat Singh v. State of Rajasthan
C.
Quareshi v. State of Bihar
D.
Air India v. Nargesh Mirza
Ans. (a)
27. In which one of the following cases is a
civil servant, before dismissal, entitled to be heard?
A.
If the President is satisfied that in the
interest of security of the State it is not expedient to hold an enquiry into
the misconduct of the civil servant .
B.
If the disciplinary authority records
that it is not reasonably practicably to hold the enquiry
C.
Where the civil servant has been convicted
on a criminal charge and the basis of dismissal is the same conduct.
D.
When the disciplinary authority is
satisfied that the civil servant has no defence.
Ans. (d)
28. Which
of the following statements is/are correct?
A.
No bill can be introduced in the legislature
of a state for imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade without
previous sanction of the President.
B.
No bill can be introduced in either
House of Parliament for altering the name of a state without the name of a state without the recommendation of the
President and the concurrence of the state legislature concerned.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
29. In which one of the following cases, the
Supreme Court invalidated clause (d) of the Article 323 A of the Constitution
of India?
A.
S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
B.
Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
C.
L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
D.
Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar.
Ans. (c)
30. Who
among the following presides over a joint session of Parliament?
A.
The President of India
B.
The Vice President of India
C.
The Speaker of the House of the People
D.
The Chief Justice of India.
Ans. (c)
31. Which
one of the following has been set up under the Constitution of India?
A. The
Planning Commission
B. The
Law Commission
C. The
National Commission to Review the Constitution.
D. The
Finance Commission.
Ans. (d)
32. The
right to equality prevents the State from
A.
Making any provision for women and
children
B.
Making 3% reservation fro physically
handicapped person.s
C.
Making special provision for the
advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens
D.
Giving reservations in public employment
to Scheduled Tribes irresepective of any consideration to efficiency of
administration.
Ans. (d)
33. The VIII Schedule of the Constitution of
India does not include which one of the following languages?
A.
Nepali
B.
Bodo
C.
Bhojpuri
D.
Dogri
Ans. (c)
34. In which case has the Supreme Court held
that no reservation under OBC category can be made to creamy layer for
admissions in educational institutions?
A.
Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
B.
M. Nagraj v. Union of India
C.
Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
D.
State of Kerela v. N.M. Thomas.
Ans. (c)
35. In which one of the following cases it is
not mandatory for the President or any other authority to consuit the Union
Public Service Commission?
A.
In matters covered by Article 335 of the
Constitution
B.
Principles to be followed in making appointments.
C.
Award of pension in respect of injuries
sustained by a civil servant while in service.
D.
Memorials and petitions pertaining to
disciplinary matters.
Ans. (a)
36. The Constitutions of India makes special
provisions for many States. The special provisions have not been made in the
case of which one among the following States?
A.
Assam
B.
Andhra Pradesh
C.
Goa
D.
Meghalaya
Ans. (d)
37. The ratification by state legislatures is
not required for a constitutional
amendment bill passed by Parliament in respect of an amendment of
A.
Union List in Seventh Schedule
B.
Article 241with regard to High Courts
for union Territories
C.
Articles 1 to 3 with regard to Union and
its territory.
D.
Article 162 with regard to the extent of
power of state executive.
Ans. (c)
38. Which
one of the following can be termed as non obstante clause?
A.
Subject to the provisions of……
B.
Notwithstanding anything contained in…
C.
Nothing contained in……
D.
A law referred to in……
Ans. (b)
39. Which
one of the following statements is true?
A dying declaration to be
admissible
A.
must be made before a magistrate
B.
must be made before a police officer
C.
must be made before a doctor
D.
may be made before a magistrate, police
officer or doctor.
Ans. (d)
40. Which
one of the following statements is not a fact in issue under the Evidence Act?
A.
The existence of any right which is
asserted or denied by the parites.
B.
The existence of any disability asserted
or denied by the parties.
C.
The existence of a right admitted by the
parties.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
None of the above
Ans. (d)
41. Which
of the following statements is/are correct?
A.
Evidence under the Evidence Act means
and includes
B.
oral evidence
C.
all documents except electronic records
D.
all documents including electronic
records.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A.
1, 2 and 3
B.
1 only
C.
2 and 3
D.
1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
42. The
Indian Evidence Act 1872 applies to
A.
the whole of India including the state
of jammu and Kashmir.
B.
all judicial proceedings in or before
any Court
C.
proceedings before an Arbitrator
D.
affifavits presented to any Court or
Officer.
Ans. (b)
43. Burden
of proof under Section 101 of the Evidence Act.
A.
never shifts
B.
goes on shifting as the trial proceeds
C.
may shift
D.
may shift with the permission of the
Court.
Ans. (a)
44. In order to raise a presumpation in
favour of an electronic produced before a Court from any proper custody the
record must be minimum of
A.
five years old
B.
ten years old
C.
fifteen years old
D.
none of the above
Ans. (a)
45. Which
of the following facts need not be proved?
A.
Oral evidence
B.
Documentary evidence
C.
Facts taken Judicial notice by Court
D.
Relevant facts
Ans. (c)
46. Which
one of the following statements is not correct?
A.
In civil cases character to prove
conduct is irrelevant
B.
In criminal cases previous good
character is irrelevant
C.
In civil cases character as affecting
damages is relevant
D.
In criminal cases provious bad character
is irrelevant unless evidence has been given of good character.
Ans. (b)
47. Which
one of the following is not a correct statement about expert opinion?
A.
The opinion of an expert is seldom
conclusive.
B.
Facts which are irrelevant become relevant
when they support the opinion of experts.
C.
Expert opinion is binding on the judge
always
D.
Evidence of experts is a suggestive
piece of evidence.
Ans. (c)
48. Which
of the following is not secondary evidence?
A.
Certified copies of public documents
B.
Copies made from or compared with the
original
C.
Counterparts of documents as against the
parties who did not execute them.
D.
Oral accounts of the contents of a
document given by some person who has himself not seen it.
Ans. (d)
49. Under which of the following situations secondary evidence of a
document under Section 65 of the Evidence Act is not permissible?
A.
The original is destroyed or lost
B.
The original is of such a nature as not
to be easily movable
C.
The original is a public document
withing the meaning of Section 74
D.
When the existence of the original has
been proved to be admitted orally by the person against whom it is proved.
Ans. (d)
50. Consider
the following statements:
A.
In criminal proceedings the burden the
proof is
B.
on the prosecution to prove the guilt of
the accused person.
C.
on the accused to prove his innocence.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor
Ans. (a)
51. Which
one of the following statements is not correct?
Refreshing memory by a witness
under Section 159 of the Evidence Act means
A.
referring to any writings made by the
witness
B.
referring to any writings made by any
other person and read by the witness.
C.
referring to any copy of the document by
the witness with court permission.
D.
referring to another witness for taking
his assistance.
Ans. (d)
52. A is a accused before a Court of Sessions
of attempting to murder a police officer whilst on his trial before B, a
Sessions Judge. Can B be examined as a witness under the above situations as to
what has occurred in his presence?
A.
May be examined as to what occurred
B.
cannot be examined as to what occurred
C.
Can be examined but only with the
permission of the Higher Court.
D.
Can be examined only if the Session
Judge consents.
Ans. (a)
53. Match List-I was List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
List – I List-II
|
A.
|
The
examination of witness by the party who calls him
|
1.
Re-examination
|
|
B.
|
Witness
who lets down the party who calls him
|
2.
Examination in Chief
|
|
C.
|
Examination
of a witness by the adverse party
|
3.
Hostile Witness
|
|
D.
|
Question
suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to deceive
|
4.
Leading Questions
|
|
|
|
5.
Cross-examination
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
5
|
3
|
4
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
3
|
5
|
4
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
3
|
1
|
2
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
1
|
3
|
2
|
Ans. (b)
54. A accused of murder, alleges that by
grave and sudden provocation he was deprived of the power of self control. On
whom the burden of proof lies in the above situation to establish grave and
sudden perovocation?
A.
On the prosecution
B.
On A
C.
On the Court
D.
On the witnesses
Ans. (a)
55. A is tried for the murder of B. He takes
the plea of self-defence but the evidence adduced by him is not sufficient to
put his case under this exception, although it is enough to create doubt
whether the charge against him has been positively proved. In this case
A.
A is guilty of murder because he has not
discharged his burden of proof.
B.
A is guilty of culpable homicide not
amounting to murder because his case falls under exceptions to section 300 IPC
C.
A has committed no offence because self
defence is a recognized ground of exemption from criminal liability
D.
A is entitled to acquittal as the
prosecution has failed to prove his guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
Directions:
The
following five items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion
A’ and the other as Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
A.
Both a and R are individually true and R
is the correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and R are individually true but R
is not the correct explanation of A
C.
A is true but R is false
D.
A is false but R is true
Ans. (d)
56. Assertion
A:
A
confession made to police officer is not admissible.
Reason R:
The
intention of the legislature is to put stop to the extortion of confessions
from accused persons.
Ans. (a)
57. Assertion
(A):
Parliament
has power to make any law for implanting any treaty, agreement or convention
with any other country.
Reason (R):
The
question of aid and advice by the Council of Ministers is a non justiciable
issue.
Ans. (a)
58. Assertion
(A):
Parliament
has power to make any law for implanting any treaty, agreement or convention
with any other country.
Reason (R):
As
an exception to normal powers, the Parliament has been given certain special
powers.
Ans. (a)
59. Assertion
(A):
The
State shall not deny to any person equality before the law and equal protection
of laws within the territory of India.
Reason (R):
The
Article cannot be invoked against discrimination made by Constitutional
Provisions.
Ans. (b)
60. Assertion
(A):
To constitute the offence of conspiracy there must be an agreement between two
or more persons to do an act which is illegal or which is to be done by illegal
means
Reason (R):
One
person cannot be held guilty of criminal conspiracy because one cannot conspire
with himself.
Ans. (a)
61. Facts
under the Evidence Act means:
A.
anything capable of being perceived by
the senses only
B.
anything not being capable of being
perceived by the senses only
C.
only any mental condition of which any
person is conscious.
D.
anything capable of being perceived
by the senses and any mental condition
of which any person is conscious.
Ans. (d)
62. Which
one of the following statements is not correct?
The Court takes the assistance of
experts when it has to form on opinion on
A.
a point of foreign law
B.
identify of handwriting
C.
identity of finger impression
D.
point of Indian law
Ans. (d)
63. In
which one of the following a dying declaration is admissible?
A.
In criminal proceedings only
B.
In civil proceedings only
C.
Both in civil and criminal proceedings
D.
In civil proceedings only with the
permission of the court.
Ans. (c)
64. Which
one of the following statements is true? Admissions are
A.
conclusive proof of the matter admitted
B.
not conclusive proof of the matter but
may operate as estoppels under certain provisions of the Evidence Act
C.
conclusive proof of the matter admitted
and always operate as estoppels
D.
not conclusive proof of the matter.
Ans. (b)
65. Under which condition a Court may take
into consideration the confession of one accused against himself and another
person?
A.
if they are tried jointly for the same
offence.
B.
If they are tried jointly for different
offences
C.
If they are tried for the same offence
but not jointly
D.
If they are tried for different offences
and not jointly
Ans. (a)
66. Oral
evidence, under Section 60 of the Evidence Act, 1872 must in all cases be
A.
indirect
B.
circumstantial
C.
direct
D.
may be presumed by Court
Ans. (c)
67. Section
27 of the Evidence Act applies:
A.
when the person giving information is an
accused but not in police custody
B.
when the person giving information is an
accused and is in police custody
C.
when the person is in police custody but
not an accused.
D.
when the person is neither in police
custody nor an accused.
Ans. (b)
68. The term police custody used under
Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 means which one of the following ?
A.
Physical presence of the police before
an accused person
B.
Indirect control by the police of an
accused person.
C.
Some restrictions by the police over an
accused person
D.
Some kind of surveillance and
restrictions over the accused person by the police.
Ans. (d)
69. Which
of the following statements is correct?
A.
Admissions may be oral or documentary or
contained in an electronic form
B.
Admission is by documentary proof only
C.
Admission are conclusive proof of the
matters admitted.
D.
Admission include admission by conduct.
Ans. (a)
70. Which of the following statements is
true? A is tired for the murder of B. There is evidence of the fact that B
prosecuted A for libel and that A was convicted and sentenced. This judgement
is
A.
conclusive proof of the murder of B by A
as it is judgement in rem.
B.
relevant but not conclusive proof as it
relates to matters of a public nature relevant to the inquiry
C.
relevant as the existence of such
judgement is a fact in issue.
D.
relevant under section 8 as showing the
motive for the murder of B.
Ans. (d)
71. Which
one of the following statements is not true?
According to Section 5 of the
Evidence Act, evidence may be given in any suit or proceeding of the
A.
existence of every fact in issue
B.
non existence of every fact in issue
C.
those facts declared relevant under the
various provisions of the Evidence Act.
D.
those facts which the parties think are
relevant.
Ans. (d)
72. Which
one of the following is not included in Union List?
A.
Postal service
B.
Defence
C.
Audit and Accounts
D.
Public Health
Ans. (d)
73. The
Sarkaria Commissin was set up to define
A.
The powers of the Union Government
B.
The Centre State relations
C.
The powers of the State Government
D.
Allocation of taxes between Centre and
States.
Ans. (b)
74. Match List-I with List –II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I List-II
(Article in Constitution) (Subject)
|
A.
|
Article
17
|
1.
Maternity Relief
|
|
B.
|
Article
42
|
2.
Abolition of untouchability
|
|
C.
|
Article
21
|
3.
Freedom of Press
|
|
D.
|
Article
19
|
4.
Protection of life and personal liberty
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
2
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
1
|
4
|
2
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
4
|
1
|
3
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
3
|
Ans. (d)
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I List-II
|
A.
|
Golak
Nath v. State of Punjab
|
1.
Minority Educational Institutions
|
|
B.
|
Olga
Tellis v. Bombay Muncipal Corporation
|
2.
Prospective overruling
|
|
C.
|
T.M.A.
Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
|
3.
Doctrine of eclipse
|
|
D.
|
Keshavan
Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay
|
4.
Right to Livelihood
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
2
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
1
|
4
|
2
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
4
|
1
|
3
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
3
|
Ans. (c)
76. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the Code given below the Lists:-
List
– I List-II
|
A.
|
Chief
Election Commissioner
|
1.
Elected by Rajya Sabha
|
|
B.
|
Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
|
2.
Elected by Members of Lok Sabha
|
|
C.
|
Speaker
of Lok Sabha
|
3.
Appointed by the President
|
|
D.
|
Chairman
of Public Public Accounts Committee
|
4.
Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
2
|
1
|
3
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
1
|
2
|
4
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
Ans. ( c )
77. Consider
the following statements:
A.
The Governor of a State
B.
is the Constitutional Head of the State
C.
always acts as an agent of the Centre.
D.
is an integral part of State
Legislature.
Which of the statements given above
are correct?
A.
1, 2 and 3
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
78. Which of the following authority/
authorities has/have powers to prohibit carrying of arms in any procession or
mass drill or mass training with arms?
A.
District Magistrate or Sub-divisional
Magistrate or Executive Magistrate
B.
Executive Magistrate or Magistrate 1st
class
C.
District Magistrate only
D.
Executive Magistrate only
Ans. (c)
79. Which one of the following statements is
not correct with regard to the nature of criminal attempt?
A.
Criminal attempt is the direct movement
towards the Commission of the offence after the preparations are made
B.
Criminal attempt is an intentional preparatory
action which fails in object
C.
An act which is done intentionally in
attempting the commission of an offence
D.
When commission of an act done
intentionally is successful, it is criminal attempt
Ans. (d)
80. The
execution of death sentence can be postponed in case of
A.
Possibility of continuation in the
Special Court
B.
Possibility of appeal in the Supreme
Court and in case of pregnant woman.
C.
Possibility of appeal in High Court and
not in case of pregnant woman
D.
Possibility of confirmation by the Sessions
Court.
Ans. (b)
81. A puts jewels into a box belonging to B,
with the intention that this circumstance may cause B to be convicted of the
offence of theft. here, A is liable to be punished for
A. Giving
false evidence only
B.
Giving or fabricating false evidence
C.
Fabricating false evidence with intent
to cause conviction with imprisonment.
D.
Fabricating false evidence only
Ans. (d)
82. An automatic box was the property of the
company. The box contained a slit of sufficient size to admit a coin and a
projecting button. The box was so constructed that upon a coin being dropped
into the slit and the button being pushed in, a chocholate would be ejected
from the box. A dropped into the slit a brass disc about the size and shape of
the coin,and thereby obtained a chocolate. A is
A.
Guilty of theft
B.
Guilty of extortion
C.
Guilty of cheating
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
83. Consider
the following statements:
A.
Section 144 of Criminal Procedure Code
is a wider and more general Section than.
B.
Section 144 of Criminal Procedure Code
is discretionary : whereas Section 145 of Criminal Procedure Code is mandatory.
Which one of the statements given
above is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
84. A pulls down houses in good faith of
saving human lives and property in a great fire. In this case, which of the
following statements is correct?
A.
He has committed an offence of mischief
B.
He has committed an offence of house
trespass
C.
He has committed an offence of house
breaking.
D.
He has committed no offence
Ans. (d)
85. Penalty
under the Surety Bond
A.
Can be remitted in full or in part
B.
Cannot be remitted
C.
C be remitted in full
D.
Can be remitted in part only
Ans. (a)
86. Ball amount fixed by a magistrate can be reduced by
A.
The magistrate himself
B.
The chief judicial magistrate
C.
The High Court or the court of Session
D.
All of the above
Ans. (c)
87. Consider
the following statements:
A.
A person intentionally omitted to give
information which he is legally bound to give.
B.
A person gives information relating to a
crime which he knows to be false.
C.
A person causes disappearance of
evidence in order to save the accused from the accusation of crime.
Which of the above amount/amount to
an offence for screening the offender from criminal liablility punishable under
Section 201 IPC?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
3 only
D.
1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
88. Consider
the following statements:
A.
Having been bound by law to state the
truth, a person makes a false statement in a proceeding before a public
servant.
B.
Having been legally bound by an oath to
state the truth a person makes a false statement before a court of justice.
C.
Which of the above will amount to giving
false evidence?
Ans. (c)
89. A person is arrested and remanded to
judicial custody for the offence of theft. He is in such custody for the last
three and half years and his trial has not yet been commenced. Which of the
following suggestions is correct in this case?
A.
He shall be released unconditionally
B.
He shall not be released unless a bail
petition is moved on his behalf.
C.
He shall be released on bail only when
he remained in custody for half of the maximum period of sentence provided for
the offence.
D.
None of the above.
Ans. (a)
90. Consider
the following statements:
1. A
court has no power to release a woman on bail if the offence is punishable with
death or imprisonment for life.
2. An
accused shall not be released on bail by
a court if he had been convicted previously on two or more occasions of
a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more.
3. Necessity
for identification by witnesses during investigation shall not be sufficient
ground for rejection of bail.
Which of the statements given above
are correct?
A.
1, 2 and 3
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
91. Any public notice issued or an order made which
prohibits carrying arms in procession or mass drill or mass training with arms
shall remain in force for not more than.
A.
Two months
B.
Three months
C.
Four months
D.
Five months
Ans. (b)
92. Consider
the following statements:
A.
A public servant accepted gratification to show
favour to a person.
B.
A person expecting to become a public
servant accepted gratification to show favour.
C.
A person not expecting to be in office
accepted gratification to show favour.
Which of the above amount to an
offence by a public servant u/s 161 IPC?
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
93. Which
of the following sections of IPC deals with volenti-nonfit-injuria?
A.
87
B.
88
C.
89
D.
All of the above
Ans. (d)
94. A takes some ornaments belonging to B out
of B’s possession without B’s consent with the intention of keeping it until he
obtains money from B as a reward for its restoration.
A is
A.
Guilty of criminal misappropriation
B.
Guilty of extortion
C.
Not guilty of theft or extortion
D.
Guilty of theft
Ans. (d)
95. A strikes B. B is by this provocation
excited to violent rage. C, a bystander intending to take advantage of B’s
rage, and to cause him to kill A, puts a knife into B’s hand for that purpose.
B kills A with the knife. Here
A.
B has committed culpable homicide but C
is guilty of murder
B.
B is guilty of murder but C has
committed only culpable homicide
C.
Both C and B are guilty of murder
D.
Both C and B are guilty of culpable
homicide not amounting to murder.
Ans. (a)
96. Insanity
produced by drunkenness is a
A.
good defence to the crime charged
B.
weak defence to a crime charged
C.
way to reduce the gravity of crime
charged
D.
way to increase the gravity of crime
charged
Ans. (b)
97. An
act is not an offence if it is committed by a person, who is a
A.
6 years old boy
B.
18 years old girl
C.
21 year old boy
D.
11 year old girl
Ans. (a)
98. Which
one of the following is not a characteristic of an offence of theft?
A.
Dishonest intention to take property
B.
The property must be movable
C.
It should be taken out of the possession
of another person
D.
Movement of property is not necessary.
Ans. (d)
99. A meets a bullock carrying a box of treasure. He
drives the bullock in a certain direction in order that he may dishonestly take
the treasure. In this case A commits
A.
Criminal misappropriation of property
B.
No offence until the treasure is being
taken away.
C.
Theft, as soon as the bullock begins to
move
D.
Criminal breach of trust.
Ans. (c)
100. Which one of the following statements does
not come under the definition of Complaint under section 2 (d) of the Criminal
Procedure Code?
A.
Complaint is an oral or a written
allegation
B.
It is to be made only to the Magistrate
C.
It is related to some person known or
unknown who has committed an offence
D.
Police discloses the commission of a
cognizable offence.
Ans. (d)
101. Consider the following statements:
A.
Bailable offence within the meaning of
Criminal Procedure Code means
B.
An offence which is enumerated as
bailable in the First Schedule
C.
An offence which is made bailable by any
other law for the time being in force.
D.
All other offences as stated in criminal
law.
Which of the statements given above
are correct?
A.
1, 2 and 3
B.
2 and 3
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
102. Consider the following statements:
A.
Abetment is constituted by
B.
instigating a person to commit an
offence
C.
engaging in a conspiracy to commit it
D.
intentionally aiding a person to commit it.
Which of the statements given above
are correct?
A. 1,
2 and 3
B. 1
and 2 only
C. 2
and 3 only
D. 1
and 3 only
Ans. (a)
103. Consider the following statements;
A.
Parliament’s power to legislate State
subjects in State List means Parliament has the power
B.
to legislature on State List with the
consent of the State
C.
to legislate on State List for
implementing treaties and international agreements.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
104. Consider the following statements:
A.
Parliament can legislate on a subject of
State List.
B.
if the Council of States passes a
resolution by two-thirds majority of members present and voting that it is
expedient in the national interest to do so.
C.
if two or more State Legislatures pass a
resolution to that effect.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
105. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I List-II
(Doctrine) (Meaning)
|
A.
|
Doctrine
of Pith and Substance
|
1.
You can not do indirectly what you cannot do
directly.
|
|
B.
|
Doctrine
of incidental Encroachment
|
2.
The part of the Statue which is bad can be served from the rest.
|
|
C.
|
Doctrine
of Severability
|
3.
A law is not invalid even though trenched incidentally
to another List
|
|
D.
|
Doctrine
of Colourable Legislation
|
4.
True nature and character of the legislation
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
1
|
3
|
2
|
4
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
2
|
3
|
1
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
4
|
3
|
2
|
1
|
Ans. (d)
106. Consider the following statements;
A.
Under Article 243D, not less than
one-third seats of the total number of seats in the panchayat to be filled
directly by election shall be reserved for women. This one-third reservation
for women.
B.
shall include women from SC and St.
C.
is in addition to the separate
reservation of one-third seats for women belonging to SC and ST.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
107. Who of the following has the right to
participate in the proceedings of State Liegislature?
A.
Chairman,State Public Service Commission
B.
Chief Justice of High Court
C.
Advocate General
D.
Chief of Police Force in the State
Ans. (c)
108. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List
– I List-II
(Subject
Matter) (Case Law)
|
A.
|
Judicial
Review
|
Indira
Gandhi v. Raj Narain
|
|
B.
|
Free
and Fair elections
|
Kesavananda
Bharti v. State of Kerala
|
|
C.
|
Balance
between Part III and Part IV
|
S.R.
Bommai v. Union of India
|
|
D.
|
Secularism
|
Minerva
Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
|
Code:
|
(a)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
1
|
4
|
2
|
|
(b)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
4
|
1
|
3
|
|
(c)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
2
|
|
(d)
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
3
|
Ans. (d)
109. Separation of judiciary from the executive
has been provided in which of the following?
A. The
Preamble of the Constitution of India.
B.
The fundamental rights of the
Constitution of India.
C.
The Directive Principles of the State
Policy of the Constitution of India.
D.
The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
of India.
Ans. (c)
110. Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles
of State Policy
A. They
are not enforceable in a Court of Law
B.
Their enforcement may override
fundamental rights.
C.
They are fundamental in the governance
of the State.
Which of the Statements given above
are correct?
A.
1, 2 and 3
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1 and 3
Ans. (a)
111. Which one of the following Directive
Principles of State Policy is not a Gandhian principle.
A.
The State shall take steps to organise
village panchayats
B.
The state shall endeavor to promote
cottage industries.
C.
The state shall take steps for
preservation and improving the breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and
other milch cattle.
D.
The state shall endeavor to secure a
uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Ans. (b)
112. Which one of the following was said by Dr.
B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution of India?
A.
Right to freedom of religion
B.
Right to Constitutional remedies
C.
Right to Property
D.
Right to equality
Ans. (b)
113. The Right to Property as a fundamental right was removed by which one
of the following Constitutional Amendments?
A.
25th Amendment
B.
93rd Amendment
C.
44th Amendment
D.
42nd Amendment
Ans. (c)
114. Safeguards against the arrest and detention
are provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?
A.
Article 25
B.
Article 22
C.
Article 14
D.
Article 19
Ans. (b)
115. Right to free and compulsory education to
children between six and fourteen years of age is provided by which Article of
the Constitution?
A.
Article 21A
B.
Article 14
C.
Article 21
D.
Article 45
Ans. (a)
116. In which case did the Supreme Court hold
that freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19 (1) includes the
right to information?
A.
Secretary, Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting v. Cricket Association of Bengal
B.
Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India
C.
Kharak Singh v. state of Uttar Pradesh
D.
Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India.
Ans. (a)
117. Which provision of the Constitutional spells
out “right to clean environment” as a fundamental right?
A.
Article 14
B.
Article 19
C.
Article 21
D.
Article 22
Ans. (c)
118. Being
a juristic person, a company is not a citizen. But in which one of the
following cases the Supreme Court held that if the state action impairs the
rights of the company thereby affecting the rights of the shareholder, the
protection of Article 19 will be available to him?
A.
State Trading Corporation of India v.
Commercial Tax officer
B.
Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. v.
State of Bihar
C.
R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
D.
Barium Chemicals Ltd. v. Company Law
Board
Ans. (c)
119. The Preamble of our Constitution proclaims
ourselves as a Sovereign Republic. In whom does the Sovereignty vests?
A.
People of India
B.
The Constitution of India
C.
The Parliament
D.
The Supreme Court in India
Ans. (a)
120. Which one of the following is not an
essential characteristic of a federal Constitution?
A.
Distribution of Powers
B.
Supremacy of the Constitution
C.
Presidential form of Government
D.
A written Constitution
Ans. (c)
Courtesy:- Legal Point Foundation (LPF
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