U.P. P.C.S. 'J.' Examination,
2003
Part-I
Law
1. Application
for anticipatory bail may be made before-
A.
Cheif Judicial Magistrate
B.
High Court
C.
Session Court
D.
Both (B) and (C)
Ans. (d)
2. Point out the incorrect statement-
A.
In cognizable offence any police officer
may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
B.
A private person may arrest or cause to
be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
C.
An Executive Magistrate may arrest the
offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his
jurisdiction
D.
None of these
Ans. (d)
3. The
power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to
another High Court can be exercised on an application by which one of the
following?
A.
Registrar of the High Court concerned
B.
AttorneyGeneral of India
C.
Chairperosn of the Bar Council of India
D.
Solicitor-General of India
Ans. (b)
4. Which
section of the Cr.P.C. provides for confirmation by the High Court of an order
of death sentence passed by the Sessions Court prior to its execution?
(A) Section 366
(B) Section
368
(C) Section 369
(D) Section
371
Ans. (a)
5. Which one of the following statements
is wrong?
if
a person forcibly resists the endeavour to arrest him, the Police Officer may-
A.
Use all the means necessary to effect
the arrest
B.
Cause the death of such person
irrespective of the offence he has committed
C.
Cause the death of such person accused
of murder
D.
Cause the death of such person accused
of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
Ans. (b)
6. Point out incorrect response-
The
period of limitation for tatting cognizance of an offence shall be-
A.
Six months if offence is punishable with
fine only
B.
One year, if the offence is punishable
with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
C.
Three years, if the offence is
punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years but not
exceeding three years
D.
Five years, if the offence is punishable
with death sentence
Ans. (d)
7. In
which case has the Supreme Court held that Section 125 Cr.P.C. was applicable
to all irresective of their religion?
A.
Mohd. Umar Khan V /s Gulshan Begum
B.
Mohd. Ahmed Khan V /s Shah Bano Begum
C.
Mst. Zohara Khatoon V Is Mohd. Ibrahim
D.
Noor Saba Khatoon V/s Mohd. Quasim
Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following offences is not
compoundable?
A.
Offence u/s. 323 I.P.C.
B.
Offence u/s. 334 I.P.C.
C.
Offence u/s. 448 I.P.C.
D.
Offence u/s. 307 I.P.C.
Ans. (d)
9. Match list-l with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code given below
List-I
A.
Security for keeping peace on conviction
B.
Security for good behaviour from
suspected persons
C.
Security for good behaviour from
habitual persons
D.
Security of keeping peace in other cases
List-II
1. S-110 2. S-107
3. S-109 4. S-106
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1
4
(B) 4 3 1
2
(C) 1 2 3
4
(D) 4 1 2
3
Ans. (b)
10. Which section of the Criminal procedure Code provides that, the
Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may, with the consent of the court at any
time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any
person in respect of any offence for which he is tried?
(A) Section 304
(B)
Section 306
(C) Section 321
(D)
Section 313
Ans. (c)
11. Which
one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act has been substituted
for the old section by the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(A) Section 39 (B)
Section 22
(C) Section 47 (D)
Section 65
Ans. (a)
12. Which
one of the following is not included in the expression 'Court' under the Indian
Evidence Act?
A.
All judges
B.
All persons legally authorized to take
evidence
C.
All Magistrates
D.
Arbitrator
Ans. (d)
13. The case of Sawal Das V/s State of Bihar
is related to-
A.
Plea of Alibi
B.
Rule of Res gestae
C.
rule of Estoppel
D.
Rule of Res judicata
Ans. (b)
14. Which
Section of the Indian Evidence makes the provision that there shall be no trial
on the ground of improper admission rejection of evidence?
(A) Section 166
(B)
Section 165
(C) Section 167
(D)
Section 161
Ans. (c)
15. A
confession by an accused can be used against a co-accused under Section Evidence
Act-
A.
As hearsay evidence
B.
Only as corrborative evidence
C.
As substantive evidence
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
16. Under
Section 57 (1) of the Indian Evidence Act, the Court shall take judicial notice
01-
A.
All laws in force in India
B.
All laws including foreign laws
C.
All Indian and Asian laws
D.
All Indian and British laws up to 19
Ans. (a)
17. The case of Pakala Narian Swamy V/s
Emperor relates to-
A.
Doctrine of estoppel
B.
Accomplice
C.
Dying declaration
D.
Cross examination
Ans. (c)
18. 'A'
commits a crime and goes to Police Officer. He makes confession and gives other
information. 'A' is charged with the offence The confession-
A.
Cannot be proved against him because of
Section 25 of the Evidence Act.
B.
Can be proved against him because
Section 27 of the evidence Act.
C.
Can be proved against him because
Section 25 of the Evidence Act.
D.
Cannot be proved against him because of
Section 27 of the Evidence Act.
Ans. (a)
19. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding dumb witnesses?
A.
A dumb witness may give his evidence by
writing in open court
B.
A dumb witness may give his evidence by
signs in open court
C.
Evidence given by a dumb witness writing
before the court shall be deemed to be documentary evidence
D.
A dumb witness may give evidence in any
manner which can make it intelligible
Ans. (c)
20. In a Trial of murder of 'B' by 'A' which
fact is not relevent?
A.
'A' was absconding immediately after the
murder of 'B'
B.
'A' and 'B' were seen together before
murder
C.
'A' had borrowed Rs. 50,000 from B.
D.
'A' was in Bombay on that day while
murder of 'B' was committed in Chennai
Ans. (c)
21. Any
question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to
receive is called-
A.
Indecent question
B.
Scandalous question
C.
Question intended to annoy
D.
Leading question
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following combination are
not correctly matched?
|
1.Voluntary
and direct Acknowledgement of guilt
|
Admission
|
|
2.Self-exculpatory
Confession of an accused
|
cannot
be used against co-accused
when
confessing accused is/not on trial
|
|
3.Extra
judicial confession
|
Corroboration
is must
|
|
4.Evidence
of police officer
|
can
be take as expert opinion
|
Select
the correct answer using the code given below-
Code:
(A) 1 and 2 (B)
1 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 2
and 4
Ans. (b)
23. Under
Proviso of Section 146(3) of the Evidence Act, in a prosecution for rape in her
cross-examination, the prosecutrix-
A.
Can be put question as to her general
immoral character
B.
With the permission of the Court can be
put questions as to her general immoral character
C.
Cannot be put questions as to her
general immoral character
D.
Cannot be put question as to her rape
Ans. (c)
24. Which one of the following is a correct
statement relating to cross examination?
A.
Witnesses to character may be cross-
examined
B.
Leading questions cannot be asked in
cross-examination
C.
A person summoned to produce a document
can be cross-examined
D.
A witness may not be cross-examined as
to previous statements made by him in writing
Ans. (a)
25. Burden of introducing evidence under
Section 102 of the Evidence Act-
A.
Sifts at times
B.
Never shifts
C.
Constantly shifts
D.
None of these
Ans. (c)
26. Civil Procedure Code (U.P. Amendment)
Ordinance, 2003 relates to-
A.
Section 105 CPC.
B.
Section 103 CPC.
C.
Section 115 CPC.
D.
Section 100 CPC.
Ans. (c)
27. Which one of the following is not a rule
of pleading?
A.
Plead the fact and not the law
B.
State the law and plead the facts
C.
Plead material facts only
D.
Plead facts not evidence
Ans. (b)
28. Which one of the following combination
are not correctly matched?
1. Res subjudice Section
11
2. Res Judicata Section
10
3. Judgement and decree Section 33
4. Summon to witness Section 80
Select
correct answer by using code given ahead-
Code:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1,
2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2,
3 and 4
Ans. (b)
29. Which one of the following cases is
related to the principle of Resjudicata?
A.
Satyacharan V/s Devrajan
B.
M.S. Cooperative marketing Federation
Ltd. V/s Indian bank Bombay
C.
P.C. Jairath V/s Amrit Jairath
D.
All the above
Ans. (a)
30. Where
the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of
institution of suit shall be decided according to-
A.
Section of 17 of C.P.C.
B.
Section of 18 of C.P.C.
C.
Section of 19 of C.P.C.
D.
Section of 20 of C.P.C.
Ans. (b)
31. All civil courts have jurisdiction to
try-
A.
All suits of a civil nature
B.
All suits civil nature except suits of
which their cognizance is expressly not barred
C.
All suits of civil nature except suits
of which their cognizance is impliedly not barred
D.
All suits of civil nature except suits
of which their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred
Ans. (d)
32. In
which one of the following cases it was held that “ Inherent power has not been
conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court”?
A.
Manoharlal V/s Seth Hirala
B.
Cotton Corpoaration of India V/s United
Industrial Bank
C.
Satyabrath Biswas V/s Kalyan Kumar Kisku
D.
Rajani Bai V/s Kamla Devi
Ans. (a)
33. “No
appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of
parties”. It is provided-
A.
Section 96(1) C.P.C.
B.
Section 96 (2) C.P.C.
C.
Section 96 (3) C.P.C.
D.
Section 96 (4) C.P.C.
Ans. (c)
34. Under Order 8 Rule 6 C.P.C. set off may
be permitted if-
A.
The suit is for recovery of property
B.
Set off claimed by the defendant is
ascertained sum of money
C.
Value of property recoverable is less
than rupees two lacs
D.
Defendant presents a written statement
of the suit.
Ans. (b)
35. Which of the following comiation are
correctly matched?
1. Tempororary injuction Order 39 C.P.C.
2. Suit by Indigent person Order 33 C.P.C.
3. Powers of Appellate Section 102 C.P.C.
4.
Right to file caveat Section
148 A C.P.C.
Select correct answer using the
code given below-
Code:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1,
2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2,
3 and 4
Ans. (a)
36. Point
out incorrect answer-
A
decree passed by a civil court can be executed by-
A. The
court which passed that decree
B.
The court to which the decree
transferred for execution by the court passing the decree
C.
Any court having jurisdiction concurrent
to the court that passed the decree
D. Either
by court (A) or (B) as above.
Ans. (d)
37. A
civil court cannot issue commission in the following case-
A. for
examining a person
B.
for examining accounts
C.
to execute partition
D. To
execute a decree
Ans. (d)
38. Which
of the following combination are correctly matched-
1. Equity of judgement debtor Section 49 C.P.C.
2. Priviledged documents Section 29 C.P.C.
3. Legal representative Section 50 C.P.C.
4. Pauper suit Order
33 C.P.C.
Select correct answer using the
code given below
Code:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1,
2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1,
3 and 4
Ans. (d)
39. Which section of civil Procedure Code
prohibits arrest or detention of women in the execution of decree for money?
(A) Section 55 (B) Section
56
(C) Section 59 (D) Section
60
Ans. (b)
40. Section
114 of C.P.C. should be read with-
(A) Order 46 Rule 1 (B) Order
47 Rule 1
(C) Order 47, Rule 3 (D) Order
41
Ans. (b)
41. Who
categorised the subject of Jurisprudence as Expositorial Jurisprudence and
censorial Jurisprudence?
(A) Holland (B) Bentham
(C) Kelsen (D) Paton
Ans. (b)
42. Who described Jurisprudence as Lawyer's
extroversion?
(A) Savigny (B)
Salmond
(C) Julius
Stone (D)
Buckland
Ans. (c)
43. About
the positive approach of law who said, "This is a confluence of command,
sanction and sovereignty"?
(A) Hart (B)
Holland
(C) Austin (D)
Kelsen
Ans. (a)
44. The constituional basis of precendent in
India is-
A.
Article
B.
Article 141
C.
Article 136
D.
Article 14
Ans. (b)
45. Fiction Theory is related to which of the
following concepts?
A.
Ownership
B.
Liability
C.
Justice
D.
Legal personality
Ans. (d)
46. Which of the following Act/Acts protect
the possession concepts?
A.
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
B.
Specific Relief Act, 1963
C.
Both (A) and (B)
D.
None of these
Ans. (b)
47. Which theory is not connected with the
concept of property?
A.
The Natural law thoery
B.
The labour theory
C.
Psychological theory
D.
Realist theory
Ans. (d)
48. In the dark age, natural law was given a
new interpretation by-
A.
St. Augustine
B.
Thomas Acquinas
C.
Paul
D.
Ulpion
Ans. (a)
49. Who
has rejected the concept of Right as, "Immoral and against the interest of
the society"?
(A) Laski (B)
Edward Jenks
(C) Buckland (D) Duguit
Ans. (d)
50. Frederick Karl Von Savigny has observed
that-
A.
Custom precedes legislation
B.
Legislation must conform to customary
practices
C.
Custom is not important than legislation
D.
Custom is superior to legislation
Select
the correct answer using the code given below
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1,
3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) I,
2 and 3
Ans. (c)
51. Kelsen's theory of law is called pure
theory because Kelsen-
A.
Purely discussed jurisprudence only
B.
Defined law in accordance with morality
and purity
C.
Separated law from religion, ethics,
sociology and history
D.
Discussed law purely in terms of justice
Ans. (c)
52. The
law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory
of India but the Supreme Court is not bound by its own decisions was held by
the Supreme Court itself in-
A.
Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. V /s State of
Bihar
B.
Keshavanand Bharti V / s State of Kerala
C.
Indira Nehru Gandhi V /s Raj Narian
D.
Madhav Rao Scindia V / s Union of India
Ans. (a)
53. Who
has made a distinction between 'Law Properly So-called' and 'Law Improperly so-
called'?
A.
Jeremy Bentham
B.
G.W. Paton
C.
John Austin
D.
Oliver Wendell Holmes
Ans. (c)
54. Analytical,
Historical and Ethical
jurispurdence are three different parts of Jurisprudence according to-
(A) Salmond (B)
Ihering
(C) H.L.A. Hart
(C)
Immanuel Kant
Ans. (a)
55. National character of law was introduced
in jurisprudence by-
A.
Karl Marx
B.
Savigny
C.
Montesquieu
D.
Hans Kelsen
Ans. (b)
56. Possession through an agent or servant is
an example of-
A.
Immediate possession
B.
Incorporeal possession
C.
Mediate possession
D.
Corporeal possession
Ans. (c)
57. The main purpose of the corporation sole
is to-
A.
Make the property easily inheritable
B.
Make the property easily transferable
C.
Maintain continuity of an office
D.
Project the property of the State
Ans. (c)
58. In
which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that secularism is the
_basic structure of the Constitution?
A.
S. P. Mittla V /s Union of India
B.
Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management
Committee V /s Chintamani Khuntia
C.
Aruna Roy V / s Union of India
D.
None of the above
Ans. (d)
59. In
which of the following case it was ruled that the Government servant has no
right to go on strike?
A.
T. R. Rangrajan, V /s State ofTamil Nadu
B.
Javed V /s State of Haryana
C.
Shyam Narain Chouksy V /s Union of India
D.
Cehat V /s Union of India
Ans. (a)
60. Which
of the following are included in the Iist of fundamental duties in the
Constitution?
A.
To abide by the Constitution and respect
ideals and institutions
B.
To safeguard Public property and abjure
voilence
C.
To uphold and protect the sovereign
unity and intergrity of India
D.
To uphold and protect secularism
Select
the correct answer using the coo given below-
Code:
a)
1, 3, 4
b)
1, 2, 4
c)
2, 3, 4
d)
1, 2, 3
Ans. (d)
61. A
law which disqualifies a person with more than two children from holding the
post Panch/Sarpanch is valid and not violative of Article 14 of the
Constitutional. In which of the following recent case the Supreme Court gave
such decision?
A.
P.U.C.L. V /s Union of India
B.
Javed V /s State of Haryana
C.
Indira Jaysing V /s Registra General
D.
Mohd. Aslam V / s Union of India
Ans. (b)
62. Match
Iist-l with Iist-ll and select correct answer using the code given below the
lists-
Lis-I
(Right)
A.
Freedom of assembly
B.
Freedom of profession, trade and
occupation
C.
Freedom of speach
D.
Freedom of association
List-II
(Restriction)
1. Article 19(2) 2. Article 19(4)
3. Article 19(3) 4. Article 19(6)
Code
a b c d
A. 3 4 1 2
B. 1 3 2 4
C. 3 2 1 4
D. 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
63. "What
cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly". This statement relates
to the doctrine of-
A.
Ancilliary power
B.
Pith and substance
C.
Colourable legislation
D.
Implied power
Ans. (c)
64. Who
was the Chairman of "National Commission to review the working of the
Constitution"?
A.
Hon'ble Justice J.S. Verma
B.
Hon'ble Justice O.P. Chinappa Reddy
C.
Hon'ble Justice R.S. Sarkaria
D.
Hon'ble Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah
Ans. (d)
65. Who among the following holds his office
at the pleasure of the President?
A.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B.
Attorney General of India
C.
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
D.
Chairman of the Union Public Service
Commission
Ans. (b)
66. Disputes between States in India come to
the Supreme Court under -
A.
Appellate jurisdiction
B.
Original jurisdiction
C.
Advistory jurisdiction
D.
Review jurisdiction
Ans. (b)
67. Parliament
has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list provided it
is in the-
A.
National interest
B.
Interest of the minority
C.
Interest of the public
D.
Interest of the State concerned
Ans. (a)
68. The
Constitutional Authority vested with power of declaring castes or Tribes as
Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the-
A.
Parliament
B.
Chairman SC/ST Commission
C.
President of India
D.
Home Minister
Ans. (c)
69. What is imperative to show the requisite
respect to the National Anthem?
A.
Sing and stand respectfully
B.
Stand respectfully
C.
Sing the same
D.
To bow
Ans. (b)
70. Under
the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a specific ground
on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
(A) Public
order (B)
Social justice
(C) Health (D)
Morality
Ans. (b)
71. The
proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved,
has to be approved by-
A.
Rajya Sabha and then it will continue
till the reconstitution of New Lok Sabha which must approve it within thirty
days of its first sitting
B.
Rajya Sabha only
C.
Lok Sabha in the next session after six
months
D.
New Lok Sabha within six months of its
constitution
Ans. (a)
72. Money Bill can be introduced-
A.
In either House of Parliament
B.
Only in Lok Sabha
C.
Only in Rajya Sabha
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
73. Which is not a qualification to become a
High Court Judge?
A.
He should be a citizen of India
B.
he has at least ten years of experience
as an advocate of High Court
C.
He has completed the age of 35 years
D.
He has, for at least ten years, held a
judicial office in India
Ans. (c)
74. In
which case the Supreme Court of India held that the "Non-smokers cannot be
compelled to be victim of air pollution"?
A.
M.C. Mehta V / s Union of India
B.
Murli S. Deora V / s Union of India
C.
Satpal Dang V / s State of Punjab
D.
Sardarilal V / s State of Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
75.
In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the
principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of
compensation for violation of fundamental rights?
A.
G.K. Krishnan V /s State of Tamilnadu
B.
Nilabati Behera V /s State of Orissa
C.
Kasturilal V /s State of U.P.
D.
State of Rajasthan V /s Vidyawati
Ans. (b)
76.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect according to the Transfer of
Property Act?
A.
A transfer of property is made by the
act of the parties
B.
A transfer of property is usually made
by one living person to another living person
C.
A transfer of property can be made even
without writing where writing is not expressly required by law
D.
A transfer of property can be made where
transfer will operate only after the death of the transferor
Ans. (d)
77. Which
of the following statements is incorrect according to the Transfer of Property
Act?
A.
Muslim woman's claim for unpaid dower
B.
Right to get damages under the law of
torts
C.
Claim for mense profits
D.
Copyright of a book
Ans. (a)
78. An actionable claim can be transferred
by-
A.
A registered instrument
B.
An instrument in writing signed by the
transfer
C.
A registered instrument attested by two
witnesses
D.
Oral agreement
Ans. (b)
79. 'Law
favours vesting of and disfavours divesting of interest' is clear from the
provisions contained in the following section of the Transfer of Property Act.
1882-
A.
Sections 28 and 29
B.
Sections 30 and 31
C.
Sections 32 and 33
D.
Sections 26 and 29
Ans. (a)
80. Fraudulent transfer is defined in -
A.
Section 19, Transfer of Property Act
B.
Section 21, Transfer of Property Act
C.
Section 53, Transfer of Property Act
D.
Section 35, Transfer of Property Act
Ans. (c)
81. Which of the following interests, is n
transferable?
A.
Vested interest
B.
contingent interest
C.
Spes-successions
D.
Interest of lessee
Ans. (c)
82. For
creating an interest in favour of an unborn person, which of the following is
essential
A.
Creation of a prior life interest in
favour of living persons
B.
Unborn person must be born before
termination of last prior life interest
C.
Absolute interest is to be given to unborn
person
D.
All of the above
Ans. (d)
83. 'A'
sells his house to 'B' with a condition that 'B" cannot transfer his house
to any one except 'C'. The sale is -
A.
Valid but condition is void
B.
Void
C.
Unlawful
D.
Voidable
Ans. (a)
84. 'A'
makes a gift of Rs. 50,000 to'B', A reserve' right with B's consent to take
back at pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of Rs. 50,000.
A.
Gift is void
B.
Gift is valid
C.
Gift is valid up to Rs. 40,000 and void
al to taking back Rs. 10,000
D.
Gift is voidable
Ans. (c)
85. A
Universal donee is liable to the creditors 0' the donor. The liability of the
Universal donee is-
A.
Personal
B.
To the extent of the value of the gifted
property is his hand,
C.
Based on pious obligation
D.
Limited to a reasonable amount
Ans. (b)
86. Which
of the following provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code is not related to
Appeal?
A.
Section 86
B.
Section 449
C.
Section 450
D.
Section 454
Ans. (c)
87. In
the absence of a contract or local law or usage to contrary, a lease of
immovable property for manufacturing purposes shall be deemed to be-
A.
For 5 years
B.
From year to year
C.
From month to month
D.
For a reasonable period
Ans. (b)
88. Which of the following is a ground for
determination of a lease by forfeiture -
A.
On breach of express condition
B.
On expiry of lease period
C.
On surrender by lessee
D.
On vesting of lessors interest in the
leassee
Ans. (a)
89. Match
List - I with List-II and select correct answer using the code given below the
lists-
List-I List-II
(a) Holding over 1. Mortgage
(b) Universal done 2. Gift
(c) Redemption 3. Lease
(d) Purchaser 4.
Sale
Code:
a b c d
3 2 1 4
2 3 4 1
4 1 2 3
1 4 3 2
Ans. (a)
90. Assertion (A):
Legal incidents of a gift include absolute enjoyment of the gift.
Reason
®:
Donee cannot be restrained in his enjoyment of gift by any condition.
Code:
A.
Both A , R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
B.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C.
A is true but R is false
D.
A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
92. Which one of the following is not
generally an essential element of crime?
(A) Actus reus
(B) Mens
rea
(C) Motive (D) Human
being
Ans. (c)
93. Which one of the following case is not
related to criminal attempt?
A.
Abhayanand Misra V /s State of Bihar
B.
Sudhir Kumar Mukherjee V /s State of
West Bengal
C.
State of Maharashtra V /s Mohd. Yakub
D.
State of Rajasthan V /s Om Prakash
Ans. (d)
94. The case of R Vis Dudley and Stephen is
related to the defence of-
A.
Insanity
B.
Intoxication
C.
Mistake of fact
D.
Necessity
Ans. (d)
95. Which of the following combinations are
not correctly matched?
1. Sherras V / s De -
Mens rea
Rutzen
2. Barendra Kumar - Intoxication
Ghosh
V / s Emperor
3. Abhayadnand -
Right to die
Misra
V /s State of
Bihar
4. Gian Kaur V / s State - Criminal
attempt
of
Punjab
Select
correct answer using the code given below-
Code:
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1,
2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1,
2 and 4
Ans. (a)
96. Assertion
(A):
Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it,
by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act.
Reason (R)
Mistake of fact is a
good defence and mistake of law is no defence
A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
C.
A is true but (R) is false
D.
A is false but (R) is true
Ans. (b)
97. The
right of private defence of property extends to causing of death when the
offence apprehended is-
(A) Theft (B) Mischief
(C)
House trespass (D) Dacoity
Ans. (d)
98. Which
one of the following is not an essential element of Section 34 of Indian Panel
Code?
A.
Criminal act done by several persons
B.
Criminal act done in furtherance of a
common intention
C.
Pre-arranged plan between persons doing
criminal act
D.
Act done in furtherance of common object
Ans. (d)
99. Which one of the following is not a
valuable security?
A.
A postal receipt for an insured parcel
B.
A rent note
C.
A promissory note
D.
A deed of divorce
Ans. (d)
100. A, in India instigates B, a foreigner in Pakistan to commit a
murder in Pakistan. 8 commits murder. In this case-
A.
A is guilty of abetting murder
B.
A is not guilty of any offence
C.
A is liable for committing murder
D.
None of the above is correct
Ans. (a)
101. 'J', a priest, beats a boy for curing him
from evil spirit. The boy dies 'J' is-
A.
Not liable for any offence
B.
Liable for culpable homicide
C.
Entitled to the defence of good faith
D.
Liable for attempt to murder
Ans. (b)
102. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of
rape is punishable under-
A.
Section - 376 D, IPC
B.
Section - 229, IPC
C.
Section - 228, IPC
D.
Section - 228A, IPC
Ans. (b)
103. Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more
persons in furtherance common object will constitute-
A.
Affrary
B.
Assault
C.
Rioting
D.
Unlawful assembly
Ans. (c)
104. 'A' having lost the receipt for debt which has paid to 'B' makes
out another receipt himself and when 'B' sues him puts made-up receipt in
evidence. In this case-
A.
'A' is guilty of the offence of for
B.
'A' is guilty of no offence
C.
'A' is guilty of cheating 'B'
D.
None of the above answers is correct
Ans. (a)
105. 'A' intending to commit theft enters house of 'B' at night and
removes from of the rooms a box to the courtyard he opens' it. He does not find
in the anything worth-taking and leaving the box there goes away. In this case-
A.
'A' is liable only for house trespas
B.
'A' is laible for theft
C.
'A' has comitted no offence
D.
'A' is liable for house trespass attempt
to commit theft
Ans. (d)
106. 'A' house owner tortures his tenant' B in order to compel him to
pay his rent realises his dues without causing any hurt to 'B'. Here-
A.
'A' is liable for criminal intimidation
under Section 503 of Indian Penal Code
B.
'A' is liable for using criminal force
under Section 350 to Indian Penal Code
C.
'A' is liable for extortion under Section
383 of Indian Penal Code
D.
'A' is liable for assault under Section 351 of Indian Penal Code
Ans. (a)
107. Which one of the following combinations not
correctly matched?
1. Dowry death Section 498A
2. Rape
Section
377
3. Adultery Section 497
4. Robbery Section 391
Select
the correct answer using the code given on. page-
Code:
(A) 1,3 and 4 (B)
I, 2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 2,
3 and 4
Ans. (b)
108. 'A' was on his journey by car from Allahabad to Lucknow 'B' met
him in the way and requested for a lift upto Rae Bareli, an intermediate town.
'A' agreed to his request but on reaching Rae Bareli, he did not drop 'B' there
in spite of his repeated requests. 'B' was carried over to lucknow against his
wishes. Here-
A.
'A' is guilty of kidnapping 'B'
B.
'A' his committed no offence
C.
'A' is guilty of wrongfully confining
'B'
D.
'A' is guilty of abducting 'B'
Ans. (c)
109. In which case the right of private defence of body does not
extend to causing of death?
A.
An assault with the intention of
wrongfully restraining a person
B.
An assault with the intention of
comitting rape
C.
An assault with the intention of
kidnaping
D.
An assault with the intention of
gratifying unnatural lust
Ans. (a)
110. Which of the following combination is
correctly matched?
(A) Involuntary
Intoxication- - Section 86
(B) Basudeo V /s State
of pepsu - Section 86
(C) Attempt to Commit
suicide - Section 306
(D) Bigamy - Section 497
Ans. (b)
111. A proposal when accepted becomes-
A.
A promise
B.
A contract
C.
An agreement
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
112. Which of the following is a valid acceptance
of a proposal?
A.
When an acceptance is made in ignorance
of the proposal
B.
When an acceptance is made in usual and
reasonable manner but not in a manner prescribed by the proposer
C.
When an acceptance is made in a manner
prescribed by the proposer
D.
None of the above
Ans. (c)
113. An agreement made without free consent is-
A.
Always void
B.
Voidable
C.
Unlawful
D.
Either void or voidable
Ans. (b)
114. A contract through telephone is considered concluded at the place
where acceptance is heard. In which of the following cases it was held?
A.
Bhagwandas V / s Girdharilal
B.
Carlill V / s Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
C.
Lalman Shukla V /s Gauridutt
D.
Satyabrata Ghosh V /s Mugneeram
Ans. (a)
115. Which of the following cases is related to
the doctrine of frustration?
A.
Hadley v /s Baxendale
B.
Carlill V /s Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
C.
Satyabrat Ghosh V /s Mugneeram
D.
State Bank of India V / s Quality Bread
factory
Ans. (c)
116. Which one of the following cases is not related to the damages
for breach of contract?
A.
Hadley V / s Baxendale
B.
State of Rajasthan V /s Novelty Stores
C.
Madras Railway Co. V /s Govind Rao
D.
Domination of India V /s All India
Reporter Ltd.
Ans. (b)
117.
Assertion (A):
All illegal agreements are void, but all void agreements are not illegal.
Reason (R)
Only those agreements, of which the
object or consideration is unlawful, are known as illegal agreements.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below-
A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
C.
is true but (R) is false
D.
is false but (R) is true
Ans. (a)
118. Which of the following agreement is not
void?
A.
'A' agrees to sell two hundred tons of
oil to 'B'
B.
An agreement in restraint of legal
proceedings.
C.
An agreement if restraint of marriage of
any person
D.
A finds B's purse and gives it to him. B
promises to give 'A' Rs. 100
Ans. (d)
119. Match list-I with Iist-II and select correct answer using the
code given below the lists-
List-I
A.
Novation
B.
Unjust enrichment
C.
Party competent to contract
D.
dispossession of property induced by
threat to cause death
List-II
1. Sec. 70 I.C.A. 2. Sec. 62 I.C.A.
3. Sec. 15 I.C.A. 4. Sec. 11 I.C.A.
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1
4 3
(B) 1 2
4 1
(C) 2 3
4 1
(D) 3 1
2 4
Ans. (a)
120. A contingent contract dependent on the happening of future
uncertain event can be enforced when the event-
A.
Happens
B.
Becomes impossible
C.
Does Not happen
D.
None of the above is correct
Ans. (a)
121. When prior to the due date of performance, the promisor
absolutely refuses to perform the contract, it is known as-
A.
Abandonment of contract
B.
Actual breach of contract
C.
Remission f contract
D.
Anticipatory breach of contract
Ans. (d)
122. When the agent contracts without disclosing name and existence
of his principal, in such a case on knowing about the principal, the third
party may file a suit against.
A.
Principal alone
B.
Agent alone
C.
Either agent or principal or both
D.
None of the above
Ans. (c)
123. ‘A’ is indebted to ‘B’. He authorises ‘B’ to seit his house and
to pay himself out of the sale proceeds the debts due to him. In the absence of
express contract-
A.
A can revoke the agency
B.
A cannot revoke the agency
C.
Aneney is not terminated by A’s death
D.
Both B and C are correct.
Ans. (d)
124. Pledge by a seller in possession of goods after
sale is-
(A) Valid (B)
Void
(C) Voidable (D) Unlawful
Ans. (a)
125. 'A' hires a carriage of 'B'. The carriage is unsafe. 'B' is not
aware of faults in carriage, 'A' is injured-
A.
'B' is liable
B.
'B' is not liable
C.
'A' and 'B' both are both are liable jointly
D.
all the above are correct
Ans. (a)
126. A guarantee which the creditor has obtained by means of keeping
silence as to a material circumstance is-
(A) Valid (B) Invalid
(C) Voidable (D) None
of these
Ans. (b)
127. Which of the following sections of Indian Contract Act embodies
the rule of Clayton's case relating to appropriation of payments?
A.
Section 59
B.
Section 61
C.
Section 60
D.
Section 58
Ans. (a)
128. The rule enunciated by Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act,
1872 is applicable to agreements which are reduced void by-
A.
Mistake
B.
Failure of Consideration
C.
Impossibility of performance of contract
D.
All of the above
Ans. (c)
129. Assertion (A):
Minor's contract is void.
Reason (R) Mortage
executed in favour of a minor is enforceable by him.
Code:
A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
B.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
C.
is true but (R) is false
D.
is false but (R) is true
Ans. (b)
130. Which of the following is not a purpose of the United Nations
under Article 1 of the Character?
A.
To achieve international co-operation in
solving international problems of social character
B.
To bring about adjustment of
international disputes by peaceful means
C.
To develop friendly relations among
nations
D.
To ensure democratic government and the
rule of law in the States of the world
Ans. (d)
131. Which of the following combinations are
correctly matched?
Tribunal/Court
Number
of Judges
1. Permanent Court of Arbitration 07
2. International Criminal Court 15
3. International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea
21
4. U.N. War Crimes Tribunal for Yugosalvia 15
Select
the correct answer using the code given below-
Code:
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1,
3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1,.2
and 4
Ans. (b)
132. On which date the statue of the
International Criminal Court has come into force?
A.
10 December, 2003
B.
24 October, 2002
C.
01 July, 2002
D.
01 January, 2003
Ans. (c)
133. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter the Security Council has
the power to use force against a State?
(A) Article 41 (B) Article
42
(C) Article 2(4)
(D) Articles 24
Ans. (d)
134. Who can request the International Court of Justice to give an
advisory opinion on any legal question?
A.
Any member of the United Nations
B.
The highest court of Justice of any
nation
C.
The General Assembly of the United
Nations
D.
Any permanent member of the Security
Council
Ans. (c)
135. Which one of the following organs of the United Nations Performs
legislative functions?
A.
The General Assembly
B.
The Economic and Social Council
C.
The Trusteeship
D.
The Security Council
Ans. (a)
136. A new member of the U.N. Is admitted by-
A.
The General Assembly
B.
The Security
C.
The General Assembly on the positive
recommendation of the Security Council including concurring votes of permanent
D.
The General Assembly on the positive
recommendation of the Security Council including concurring votes of peramanent
members
Ans. (d)
137.
The Secretary of the United Nations is
appointed-
A.
By the permanent members of the Security
Council
B.
By the General Assembly on the
recommedation of the Security Council
C.
In a joint session of the Security
Council and General Assembly
D.
By the Security Council on the
recommendation of the General Assembly
Ans. (b)
138. Little Assembly is the body created by-
A.
Security Council
B.
General Assembly
C.
Secretary General
D.
G-8
Ans. (b)
139. Which of the following countries is not the
member of SAARC?
(A) Singapore (B) India
(C) Pakistan (D) Bhutan
Ans. (a)
140. Which one of the following States had proposed the creation of
Trioka in place of Secretary General of United Nations?
(A) U.S.S.R. (B) U.S.A.
(C) U.K. (D)
China
Ans. (a)
141. Under which of the following the former President of Iraq Saddam
Hussain has been granted the status of prisoner of war?
A.
The United Nations Charter, 1945
B.
The Geneva a Convention No. III, 1949
C.
The Hague Convention No. I, 1907
D.
The Pact of Paris, 1928
Ans. (b)
142. What is the name of the Anti-Terrorism law enacted by the U.S.A.
just weeks after the September 11, 2001 attacks on World Trade Centre?
A.
U.S. Patriot Act
B.
U.S. Prevention of Terrorism Act
C.
U.S. Security Act .
D.
U.S. National Safety Act
Ans. (b)
143. Which country has declared in December, 2003 to destroy all"
Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMDs) and abandon all programmes to develop them?
A.
Isreal
B.
Brazil
C.
North Korea
D.
Libya
Ans. (d)
144. First Muslim woman to win the Nobel Prize in
its 102 years history is-
A.
Taslima nasreen
B.
Benazir Bhutto
C.
Shirin Ebadi
D.
Nafisa Sadiq
Ans. (c)
145. Who has been apponted as U.S. Civilian, Administrator in Iraq
after Saddam Hussain ouster from power?
(A) Hans BIix (B) Kristin
Gilmore
(C) Salim Lone (D) Paul
L. Bremer
Ans. (d)
146. Inquiry under Criminal Procedure Code
conducted by-
A.
Magistrate only
B.
Police Officer
C.
Sessions Court
D.
Magistrate or Court
Ans. (d)
147. Which of the following courts can try summarily offences
mentioned in Section 260 of Criminal Procedure Code?
A.
Any Chief Judicial Magistrate
B.
Any Metropolitan Magistrate
C.
Any magistrate of the first c1a~
specially empowered by the High Court in this behalf
D.
All the above
Ans. (d)
148. Which one of the following combination not
correctly matched?
1. Anticipatory bail -
Section 437 of' Cr.P
2. Summary - Section 384
of Cr.P.
dismissal
3. Apeeal in case - Section 376 Cr. P.
of acquittal Code
4. Reference to - Section 397 of Cr.P.
High Court Code
Select
correct answer using the code given below Code:
(A) I, 2and 4 (B) I,
3 and 4
(C) I, 2 and 3 (D) 2,
3 and 4
Ans. (b)
149. The procedure for summary trial is provide in the following
sections of the Cr. P. Code-
A.
Section 251 to 259
B.
Section 238 to 250
C.
Section 260 to 265
D.
Section 266 to 271
Ans. (c)
Part-II
General
Studies
1. BCG is a vaccine against-
(A) T.B. (B) Polio
(C) Small pox (D) Typhoid
Ans. (a)
2. Plantation
of which of the following is not advisable because it may serve as an allergy
tree?
(A) Neem (B) Banyan
(C) Tamarind (D) Gulmohar
Ans. (d)
3. Lodized
salt is propagated to remove-
A.
Nutritional anemia
B.
Nutritional blindness
C.
Nutritional Goitre
D.
Nutritional Vitamin-A deficiency in
childhood
Ans. (c)
4. Antibiotics destroy
(A) Worms (B) Lice
(C) Bacteria (D) Mosquito
Ans. (c)
5. Which tells the condition of heart?
(A) EEG (B) ECG
(C) PCG (D) EPG
Ans. (b)
6. The dialysis is administered when-
A.
The heart is not working
B.
The kidneys are not working
C.
The liver is not working
D.
The body is paralysed
Ans. (b)
7. The instrument used for measuring the
atomsopheric humidity is-
A.
Hygrometer
B.
Barometer
C.
Anemometer
D.
Thermometer
Ans. (a)
8. Clouds contain-
A.
Water suspended in air
B.
Gases only
C.
Dust particles
D.
Global Warming
Ans. (a)
9. The two planets having no satellites
are
A.
Earth and Jupiter
B.
Mercury and Venus
C.
Venus and Mars
D.
Venus and Saturn
Ans. (b)
10. Which one is not correctly matched?
A.
Kilowatt Hour Electricity
B.
Celsius Temperature
C.
Rg factor Blood
D.
Richter scale Humidity
Ans. (d)
11. The
most air-polluting gas emitted by the fumes of motor vehicles is-
(A) Methane (B) Carbon-dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Chlorine
Ans. (c)
12. Two National Highways Kanya Kumari to Srinagar
and Porbandar to Silcher, which are being constructed under National Highway
Development Project, shall meet together at-
(A) Bhopal (B) Gwalior
(C) Jhansi (D) Nagpur
Ans. (c)
13. Assertion
(A):
LPG is a pollution free vehicular fuel.
Reason
®: Plying of CNG fuelled buses is recommended for metro politan cities of
India.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below-
A.
Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C.
A is true but R is false
D.
A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)
14. The
largest flower of the world is-
(A) Lotus (B) Dahelis
(C) Sunflower (D) Rafflesia
Ans. (d)
15. Which
one of the following is a ballistic Missle?
(A) Akash (B) Trishul
(C) Agniq (D) Prithvi
Ans. (c)
16. Wine
contains mainly-
(A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Acetic Acid (D) Chloroform
Ans. (a)
17. ‘Geneco’
technology is-
A.
Defence system for prevention of AIDS
B.
The method for the development of
species of food crops
C.
Technique for pre-information regarding
genetic diseases
D.
Technique for prevention of cataract
Ans. (c)
18. Which
one of the following expresses errors in
computer data?
(A) Chip (B) Byte
(C) Bug (D) Bit
Ans. (c)
19. What
a microcomputer cannot do?
A.
Adding numbers
B.
Subtracting numbers
C.
Performing logic operations
D.
Doing things what it is not told to do
Ans. (d)
20. The
Green House effect if not checked in next hundred years, would result in-
A.
Freezing of earth
B.
Rise I temperatures of earth but not in
sea level
C.
Rise in seal level of earth but not in
temperature
D.
Rise in both sea level and temperature
of earth
Ans. (d)
21. Which
one of the following statements is correct?
A.
HIV is same as AIDS
B.
HIV is caused by AIDS
C.
AIDS is not caused by HIV
D.
AIDS is caused by HIV
Ans. (d)
22. The
leading gypsum producing State of India is-
A.
Jammu & Kashmir
B.
Gujarat
C.
Rajasthan
D.
Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
23. Assertion
(A):
DDT though effective on pests has been banned in western countries.
Reason
®:
DDT tends to remain stable in environment for long.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below-
A.
Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.
A is true but R is false
D.
A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
24. Electrical
workers use rubber gloves in their hands because-
A. Rubber
is a good conductor of electricity
B. Rubber
is a bad conductor of electricity
C. Rubber
keeps hands warm
D. Rubber
goods are beautiful to look at
Ans. (b)
25. Who
invented Television?
(A) J.L.Baird (B) Graham Bell
(C) G. Maroconi (D) J.J. Thomson
Ans. (a)
26. Liquefied
Petroleum Gas LPG contains mainly-
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Methane (D) Propane
Ans. (d)
27. Which
one of the following is not found in space?
(A) Black hole (B) Brittle Star
(C) Quasar (D) Pulser
Ans. (b)
28. Which
one of the following is not fundamental particle
(A) Electron (B) Proton
(C) Neutron (D) Photon
Ans. (d)
29. Assertion
(A):
Woolen clothes keep us warm.
Reason
®: Wool fibers are made of a particular protein which is a bad conductor of
heat.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
A.
Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C.
A is true but R is false
D.
A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
30. The
Biotech of Uttar Pradesh is located at-
(A) Agra (B) Gorakhpur
(C) Lucknow (D) Varansi
Ans. (c)
31. The
capital from Delhi to Agra was transferred by-
A.
Mohd. Tughlaq
B.
Firoj Shah Tughlaq
C.
Sikandar Lodhi
D.
Ibrahim Lodhi
Ans. (c)
32. First
Portuguese Governor in India was-
(A) Almeida (B) Albuquerue
(C) Pedro Cabral (D) Vasco da Gama
Ans. (a)
33. Akbar’s
Din e liahi was not successful because-
A.
After Akbar no one patronized it
B.
Although
it had imbibed the good principle from other religions, it was not
presented in the right manner before the people.
C.
Muslim were not prepared to accept any
other religion
D.
All of the above
Ans. (d)
34.
In which Centurary did the famous Chinese pilgrim Fahien visited India?
(A) 4th Century (B) 5th
Century
(C) 6th Century (D) 7th
Century
Ans. (b)
35. Which
Muslim Ruler in India introduced Jaziya Tax?
A.
Balban
B.
Mohammad bin Quasim
C.
Alauddin Khilji
D.
Firoz Tuhglaq
Ans. (b)
36. The
caves and rock cut temples in Elora are of-
A.
Buddhist only
B.
Buddhist and Jains only
C.
Hindus and Jains only
D.
Hindus, Buddhists and Jains
Ans. (d)
37. The
Lahore Conspiracy Case resulted in hanging of-
A.
Rama Prasad Bismil
B.
Bhagat Singh
C.
Sukhdev
D.
Rajguru
Choose
your answer from the code given below-
Code:
(A) I and II (B) I
and III
(C) I, II and
III (D) II, III and IV
Ans. (d)
38. The Novel ‘Anand Math’ was written by-
A.
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
B.
Dinbandhu Mitra
C.
Rabindra Nath Tagore
D.
Sharat Chandra
Ans. (a)
39. Depressed Classes League was established
by-
A.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B.
Babu jagjiwan Ram
C.
N.S. Kajorlkar
D.
Mahatma Jotiba Phule
Ans. (a)
40. ‘Sanchi Stupa’ was built by
A.
Samudra Gupta
B.
Ashoka
C.
Krishana Deo Raya
D.
Harsha
Ans. (b)
41. Which
of the following leading personalities were associated with the formation of
the Swaraj Party?
A.
Subhash Chandra Bose
B.
C.R. Das
C.
Jawahar Lal Nehru
D.
Motilal Nehru
Ans. (d)
42. In
the history of India among the following who is famous for the policy of
‘Market Control’?
(A) Balban (B) Akbar
(C) Sher Shah (D) Alauddin Khilji
Ans. (d)
43. The Battle of ‘Plassey’ was fought
between-
A.
The English and the French
B.
The English and the Nawab of Bengal
C.
The English and the nawab of Avadi
D.
The English and the Marathas
Ans. (b)
44. The
Social Reformer of the 19th Century who vigorously favoured the
widow remarriage was-
A.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.
Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
C.
Devendra Nath Tagore
D.
Swami Vivekanand
Ans. (b)
45. Which
of the following dynasties is credited to issue of gold coin in India for the
first time?
(A) The Mauryas (B) The Guptas
(C) The Kushanas (D) The
Satavahanas
Ans. (c)
46. The Valley of flower lies in the district
of-
(A) Chamoli (B) Uttar Kashi
(C) Dehradun (D) Nainital
Ans. (a)
47. The most urbanized State of India is-
A.
Gujrat
B.
Maharashtra
C.
Tamil Nadu
D.
West Bengal
Ans. (b)
48. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest decadal
growth rate of population during-
(A) 1951-61 (B) 1961-71
(C) 1971-81 (D) 1981-91
Ans. (c)
49. The S.C. population as percent of total
population (2001) is highest in-
A.
Andhra Pradesh
B.
Himachal Pradesh
C.
Punjab
D.
Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
50. The oldest mountain in India is-
(A) Aravalli (B) Nilgiri
(C) Satpura (D) Vindhyachak
Ans. (a)
51. Assertion (A):
Northern plains of India receive Some precipitation during winter season.
Reason (R): North-East Monsoon is active during winter.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below-
Code:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(D)
(A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (a)
52. The Makrana Marble Quarries lie in-
(A) Bihar (B)
Gujarat
(C)
Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan
Ans. (d)
53. Electric locomotives are manaufactured
at-
(A) Perambur (B) Chittaranjan
(C) Varansi (D) Patiala
Ans. (b)
54. The largest produce of Rubber in India
is'--
(A) Assam (B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala (D)
Maharashtra
Ans. (c)
55. Which
one of the following States experienced the lowest growth rate of population
during 1991-2001 ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Goa
(C) Kerala (D)
Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
56. Pokhran is situated in-
(A)
Gujarat
(B)
Rajasthan
(C)
Madhya Pradesh
(D)
Maharstra
Ans. (c)
57. Which of the following pairs is correctly
matched?
(A)
Kota - Maharashtra
(B)
Narora - Bihar
(C)
Tarapur - Rajasthan
(D)
Kalpakkam - Tamil Nadu
Ans. (d)
58. Match
list-l with list-ll and select the correct answer by using the code given below
the list-
List-II
` List-II
(a)
Manganese 1. Orissa
(b)
Asbestos 2. Madhya Pradesh
(c)
Nickle 3. Rajasthan
(d)
Zinc 4. Andhra Pradesh
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1
4 2
(B) 1 2
3 4
(C) 4 3
2 1
(D) 2
4 1 3
Ans. (d)
59. Starting
from North to South which one is the correct sequence of the following Sea-ports?
(A)
Channai, Tuticorin, Visakhapatam and
Paradip
(B)
Paradip, Chennai, Visakhapatnam and
Tuticorin
(C)
Visakhapatna, Paradip, Chennai and
Tuticorin
(D)
Paradip, Visakhapatna, Chennai and
Tuticorin
Ans. (d)
60. ISRO Satellite is located at-
(A)
Thiruvananthapuram
(B)
Ahmedabad
(C)
Banglore
(D)
Sriharikota
Ans. (c)
61. The Vice President of India is also-
(A)
Chairman of Lok Sabha
(B)
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C)
Chairman of the Planning Commission
(D)
Chairman of the Privileges Committee
Ans. (b)
62. The
first Speaker against whom a motion of No-confidence was moved in Lok Sabha
was-
(A) B. R. Jhakad (B) G.V. Mavlankar
(C) Hukum Singh (D) K.S.
Hedge
Ans. (b)
63. Assertion
(A):
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a misleading designation..
Reason ®:
He exercises the function only of an Auditor.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(A)
Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct of explanation of A
(C)
A is true but R is false
(D)
A is false but R is true
Ans. (d)
64. The Uniform Civil Code operates in-
(A) Arunchal Pradesh (B) Meghalaya
(C) Goa (D) Sikkim
Ans. (None)
65. Which one of the following Bill is not
introduced in Rajya Sabha
(A)
Amendment Bill
(B)
Ordinary Bill
(C)
Money Bill
(D)
None of these
Ans. (c)
66. According
to the law enacted by the Parliament in December, 1999 the legal age for a
citizen to become major is-
(A) 23 years (B) 22 years
(C) 20 years (D) 18 years
Ans. (d)
67. Who of the following was elected
President of India unanimously?
(A)
Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(B)
V.V. Giri
(C)
N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D)
Gyani Zail Singh
Ans. (c)
68. Which
one of the following Fundamental rights under Indian Constitution is not
available to all persons?
(A)
Equity before law
(B)
Freedom of religion
(C)
Right against exploitation
(D)
Equality of opportunity
Ans. (d)
69. Assertion (A):
There is not party system in India.
Reason ®:
There are too many political parties.
Select
the correct answer using the code given below-
Code:
(A)
Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B)
Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct of explanation of A
(C)
A is true but R is false
(D)
A is false but R is true
Ans. (d)
70. The
first Joint Meeting of the Council of the States and the House of People was
held in connection with the –
(A)
Bank Nationalisation Bill
(B)
Dowry Abolition Bill
(C)
Gold Control Bill
(D)
Hindu Code Bill
Ans. (b)
71. The
term of any State Legislative Assembly can be extended during Emergency by the-
(A)
President of India
(B)
Governor of State concerned
(C)
Union Parliament
(D)
State Legislative itself
Ans. (c)
72. The Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh at
the time of P.A.C. revolt was-
(A)
Chaudhary Charan Singh
(B)
Kamplapati Tripathi
(C)
H.N. Bahuguna
(D)
Banarsi Das
Ans. (c)
73. Which
of the following case comewithin the jurisdiction of both the High Court and
the Supreme Court?
(A)
Disputes between the Centre and the
States
(B)
Disputes between the State
(C)
Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(D)
Protection from violation of the
Constitution.
Ans. (c)
74. Constitution of India was declared as
passed on-
(A)
November 26, 1949
(B)
January 26, 1950
(C)
January 26, 1948
(D)
November 26, 1948
Ans. (a)
75. Which
of the following High Court gave a historic verdict that “ Bands organised by
political parties were unconstitutional and illegal. They violate fundamental
rights of the citizen?
(A)
Mumbai
(B)
Kolkata
(C)
Punjab and Haryana
(D)
Kerala
Ans. (b)
76. Match
List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the
lists-
List-I List-II
Persons Place
(A)
Sardar Patel 1. Nankana
(B)
Gautam Buddha 2. Kapil
Vastu
(C)
Mahatma Gandhi 3. Karamsad
(D)
Guru Nanak 4. Porbander
Code:
a b c d
(A)
1 2 3 4
(B)
2 1 4 3
(C)
3 2 4 1
(D)
4 3 2 1
Ans. (c)
77. Which out of the following women
cliders on Everest was the youngest?
(A)
Dicky Dolma
(B)
Santosh Yadav
(C)
Bachendri Pal
(D)
Suman Katiyal
Ans. (a)
78. Which
of the following countries did not impose sanctions on India after it conducted
nuclear test at pokharan?
(A) Japan (B) Canada
(C) Sweden (D) France
Ans. (d)
79. A.P.J.
Kalam was conferred ‘Bharat Ratna’ for his investigations in which field?
(A)
Solar Energy
(B)
Medicines
(C)
Defence
(D)
Missile Technology
Ans. (d)
80. Who
won the 1st Gold medal for India in the thirteenth Asian Games?
(A)
Dinko Singh
(B)
Geet Singh
(C)
Jyotirmayee Sikdar
(D)
Damyanti Darsh
Ans. (c)
81. The
Gokul Gram Scheme is associated with the State of-
(A)
Uttar Pradesh
(B)
Andhra Pradesh
(C)
Gujarat
(D)
Rajasthan
Ans. (c)
82. What
is Golden Quadrillateral Project?
(A)
It is a project to connect four
important trade centres of the world by air
(B)
It is a project to develop four centres
in for corners of the country to attract tourists.
(C)
It is a project to connect four
important metropolitan cities of India by a fourlane fast road track
(D)
None of the above
Ans. (c)
83. ‘Interpol’
is an international
(A)
News Agency
(B)
Intelligence Organisation
(C)
Petorleum Trade Organisation
(D)
Police Organisation
Ans. (d)
84. Which
of the following is the accepted definition of Black Money?
(A)
It is illegal income
(B)
It is secret and undisclosed income
(C)
It is the income which cannot be
judtified
(D)
It is the income on which tax has been
evaded
Ans. (d)
85. India’s
Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is headed by-
(A)
Prime Minister
(B)
President
(C)
Chief of Strategic Forces Command
(D)
National Security Advisor
Ans. (a)
86. What
are ‘Diamond Parks’?
(A)
They are National parks located on hill
stations in India and developed by Central Ministry of Environment
(B)
They are place where petroleum
refineries are located
(C)
They are industrial centres being
developed for encouraging the manufacturing and export of diamonds, synthetic
games and jewellery
(D)
They are places where big power projects
are located.
Ans. (d)
87. Who
is known as the ‘Father of e-mail’?
(A)
Bill Gates
(B)
Timothy Bill
(C)
Lincoln Geltisberg
(D)
Ray Tamlison
Ans. (c)
88. The
2004 Olympic Games will be held at-
(A) Busan (B) Bangkok
(C) Athens (D) Sydney
Ans. (c)
89. Which
of the following is not correctly matched?
(A)
Sachin Tendulkar-Cricket
(B)
Bhai Chung Bhutia Football
(C)
Dhanraj Pillay Badminton
(D)
Mahesh Bhupati Tennis
Ans. (c)
90. ‘Yuan’
is the currency of-
(A) China (B) Singapore
(C) Sourth Korea (D) Poland
Ans. (c)
91. SAARC
has it permanent Secretariat at-
(A) Kathmandu (B) Delhi
(C) Dacca (D) Islamabad
Ans. (a)
92. Who
was bestowed all the following awards?
1.
Nobel Prize
2.
Bharat Ratna
3.
Magsaysay
A.
Jawahar Lal Nehru
B.
C.V. Raman
C.
Rabindra Nath Tagore
D.
Mother Teresa
Ans. (c)
93. Which of the following African countries is
the member of commomwealth without being a part of former British empire?
(A) Kenya (B) Mozambique
(C) Uganda (D) Zimbabwe
Ans. (b)
94. The W.T.O. Headquarters are located at-
(A)
Geneva (B) New York
(C) Paris (D) Seattle
Ans. (a)
95. ‘Ankleshwari’
is place in-
A.
Bihar where oil refinery has been built
B.
Madhya Pradesh where s fertilizer plant
has come up
C.
Orissa, universally known for temples
D.
Gujarat where oil has been found
recently
Ans. (d)
96. The
2007 Cricket World Cup will be held in-
(A) Austrilia (B) England
(C) New Zealand (D) West Indies
Ans. (d)
97. Who
among the following is the world’s first woman cosmonaut?
A.
Bachendri Pal
B.
Junko Tabei
C.
Valentena Tereshkova
D.
Sally Ride
Ans. (c)
98. Who was the 1st woman among the
following to become the Prime Minister of a country in the world?
A.
Benazir Bhutto
B.
Indira Gandhi
C.
Margaret Thatcher
D.
Sirimavo Bhandarnaike
Ans. (d)
99. The
name of the Chicago Physician who wants to clone a human, is+
(A) Carl Feldbaum (B) David Heed
(C) Dr. Friedman (D) Dr. Richard Seed
Ans. (d)
100. The
controversial film ‘FIRE’ was directed by-
(A) Ketan Mehta (B) Deepa Mehta
(C) Mahesh Bhatt (D) Mira Nair
Ans. (b)
101. The
recommendation for uniform rates of sales tax by all the States was made by-
A.
10th Finance Commission
B.
Ministry of Finance Govt. of India
C.
Indian Planning Commission
D.
Chelliah Committee
Ans. (d)
102. The sick
industrial unit in India is one which-
A.
Has incurred cash losses during the
current and preceding five financial years
B.
Has accumulated losses equal to or more
than its net worth
C.
Has failed to repay three consecutive
loan istalments
D.
All the three above
Ans. (d)
103. The
largest item of expenditure in the current account of the Central Government
budget is-
A.
Defence expenditure
B.
Subsidies
C.
Interest payments
D.
Expenditure on social services
Ans. (c)
104. Which of
the following items is the highest foreign exchange earner in India?
A.
Software
B.
Gems and Jewellery
C.
Tea
D.
Cotton Textiles
Ans. (a)
105. ‘Hydrocarbon
Vision 2025’ is associated with-
A.
Storage of Petroleam Products
B.
Euro-I & Euro-II vehicles
C.
Green House effect
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
106. Which
among the following organisations are responsible for canalizing exports and
India?
A.
Minerals and Metal Trading Corporation
B.
Exim Bank
C.
State Trading Corporation
D.
Food Corporation
Select the correct answer from the
code given below-
Code:
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) II
and IV
(C) I and III (D) II, III and IV
Ans. (a)
107. Which
one of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
A.
Issue of notes
B.
Banker’s Bank
C.
Government Bank
D.
Accepting deposits from the public
Ans. (d)
108. The
maximum tax revenue is received by the Government of India from-
A.
Corporate tax
B.
Income Tax
C.
Union Excise Duty
D.
Import duty
Ans. (c)
109. Who has
been called the ‘Father of Green Revolution; in India?
A.
V.K.R.V. Rao
B.
C.H. hunmantha Rao
C.
M.S. Swaminathan
D.
M.L. Dantwala
Ans. (c)
110. The leading fish producing State of India
is-
(A) Gujarat (B) kerala
(C) Orissa (D)
West Bengal
Ans. (c)
111. Which among the following is not an it non-plan expenditure of
the Cen Government?
(A)
Defence Expenditure
(B)
Payment of Subsidy
(C)
payment of Interest
(D)
Allocation for Science & Technology
Ans. (b)
112. Fastest growth in recent times has recorded
in which of the following?
(A)
Gems and Jewellery
(B)
Computer Software
(C)
Oil Refining
(D)
Steel
Ans. (b)
113. The agnecy which estimates national income
of India is-
1.
Reserve Bank of India
2.
Planning Commission
3.
Ministry of Finance
4.
Central Statistical Organisation
Ans. (d)
114. Who is the custodian of Foreign Exchange
Reserves of India?
A.
A project to control floods
B.
Reserve Bank of India
C.
State Bank of India
D.
Foreign Affairs Ministry
Ans. (b)
115. What is 'Operation Flood'?
A.
A Project to control floods
B.
A project of check deforestation
C.
A project to promote dairying in the
country
D.
None of these
Ans. (c)
116. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the
Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to-
(A) SEBI (B)
RBI
(C) SBI (D)
ICICI
Ans. (a)
117. 'Garibi Hatao' slogan was transformed into a Plan with the
objective of removal 01 poverty in-
A.
3rd Five Year Plan
B.
Three Annual Plans
C.
5th Five Years Plan
D.
7th Five Year Plan
Ans. (c)
118. What is the meaning of 'Support Price'?
A.
Subsidy paid by government over price
B.
Minimum selling price
C.
Minimum selling price at which the
government suarantees to purchase
D.
Money paid to farmers in case of drought
or floods
Ans. (c)
119. Assertion (A): Our agriculture growth
rate is small even after proper planning and investment.
Reason (R):
Land reforms have not been carried out up to the mark
Select
your correct answer from the code given below-
Code:
A.
Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and Rare true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C.
A is true but R is false
D.
A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
120. Assertion (A):
The rate of inflation in India has come down in the last three years.
Reason (R): The country has received large amount of
foreign capital during these years.
Select
your correct answer from the code given below-
Code:
A.
Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
B.
Both A and Rare true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
C.
A is true but R is false
D.
A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)
121. The name of the operation which American forces adopted to arrest
former President Saddam Hussain was-
A.
Operation Clear
B.
Operation Victory
C.
Operation Red-cross
D.
Operation Red Don
Ans. (d)
122. Among the following the leap year is-
A.
2004
B.
1982
C.
1978
D.
1998
Ans. (a)
123. Which of the following does not belong to
the U.N.O.?
(A) F.A.O. (B) L.L.O
(C) W.H.O. (D) ASEAN
Ans. (d)
124. Sharjah is located in-
(A) Iraq (B)
Kuwait
(C) Saudi
Arabia (D) U.A.E.
Ans. (d)
125. The largest rail route in the world is
between
A.
Buenos Aires to Valparaso
B.
Cape to Cairo
C.
leningrad toVladivostok
D.
Leningrad to Volgograd
Ans. (c)
126. 2010 Commonwealth Games will be organised
in-
(A) Canada (B) New
Zealand
(C) India (D)
Australia
Ans. (c)
127. The largest producer of Petroleum in the
word is-
(A) China (B)
Iran
(C) Saudi Arbia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans. (d)
128. Indian Cricketer who has the largest record
of winning in foreign land is
(A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Ajit Wadekar
(C) Sourav Ganguli (D) Kapil Dev
Ans. (b)
129. Which one of the following is Not a nuclear
power?
(A) China (B)
Japan
(C) U.S.A. (D) Russia
Ans. (b)
130. Which one of the following is not currently
matched?
A.
Corbett National Park Uttranchal
B.
Kaziranga National Park Assam
C.
Bandipur National Park Andhra
D.
Nagarhola National Park Karnataka
Ans. (c)
131. Nobel Prizes are awarded by-
A.
Norway Government
B.
Sweden Government
C.
Royal Swedish Academy
D.
Switzerland Government
Ans. (c)
132. India's first satellite launched from Soviet
Cosmodrome was-
A.
Aryabhatta
B.
Bhaskara
C.
Rohini
D.
Apple
Ans. (a)
133. Which of the following helps in establishing
parenthood?
A.
Gene-therapy
B.
Gene-cloning
C.
DNA finger printing
D.
DNA recombinant technology
Ans. (c)
134. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched?
A.
Nagarjun Sagar - Krishna
B.
Sardar Sarovar - Narmada
C.
Tehir Dam Bhagirathi
D.
Gandhi Sagar Sabarmati
Ans. (d)
135. Zimbabwe was earlier known as-
A.
Southern Rhodesia
B.
Gold Coast
C.
Ivory Coast
D.
Belgian Congo
Ans. (a)
136. The World 'AIDS' Day is observed on-
(A) December, 1
(B) November,
14
(C) December,23
(D) December, 10
Ans. (a)
138. The Indian States which have common borders
with Pakistan are-
A.
Jammu Kashmir and Punjab only
B.
Jammu Kashmir, Punjab and Rajasthan only
C.
Gujarat, Jammu Kashmir, Haryana and
Rajasthan
D.
Gujarat, Jammu Kashmir, Punjab and
Rajasthan
Ans. (d)
139. International Day of Peace as per the UNO
directions is celebrated on-
(A) September 24 (B) September
16
(C) October 2 (D) None of these
Ans. (d)
140. The present Secretary General of the United
Nations organization is-
A.
Boutros Boutros Ghali
B.
Kofi Annan
C.
U. Thant
D.
Dag Hammarskjoeld
Ans. (b)
141. The computer system which links and stores information among
different countries in the world through
a satellite is known as-
A.
Apppolo
B.
INSAT 2-D
C.
Internet
D.
Albania
Ans. (c)
142. Mother Teresa was a native of
A.
Croatia
B.
Yugoslavia
C.
Bosnia
D.
Albania
Ans. (b)
143. The ‘World Environment Day’ falls on-
(A) 5th June (B) 14th
June
(C) 2nd October (D) 15th
July
Ans. (a)
144. The Mc Mohan Line bordering India
and China has been drawn on Northern
boundary of-
A.
Jammu & Kashmir
B.
Himachal Pradesh
C.
Arunachal Pradesh
D.
Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (c)
145. Which one of the following States is not
bilingual?
(A) Nagaland (B) Sikkim
(C) Karnataka (D) Tripura
Ans. (c)
146. Which one of the following States is not bilingual?
(A) L.M. Singhvi (B) J.M. Lingdoh
(C) V.N. Khare (D) Yashwant Sinha
Ans. (b)
147. Which of the following countries are members
of the ‘European Union?
1. Portugal 2. Belgium
3. Greece 4. Poland
Choose
the correct answer from the code given below-
Code:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
148. Ist Indian woman to fly in U.S.
Space Craft Space Shuttle Columbia Flight STS 87 on Nov. 19, 1997 was-
A.
Kalpana Chawla
B.
Diana Edulji
C.
Bachendri Pal
D.
Amrita Shergill
Ans. (a)
149. The largest group of islands in the world
is-
A.
Japan
B.
Indonesis
C.
Fiji
D.
Andman and Nicobar Islands
Ans. (b)
150. In 2003 the Chief Guest on the Republic Day
was
A.
Qasim Utteem
B.
Olusogun Obasanjo
C.
Thabo Mbki
D.
Syd. Mohd. Khatmi
Ans. (d)
Courtesy:-
Legal Point Foundation
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