02 March, 2016

Solved Question Papers of U.P. P.C.S. 'J.' Examination, 2003 (Preliminary Examination)

U.P. P.C.S. 'J.' Examination, 2003

 1.        Application for anticipatory bail may be made before-
A.                Cheif Judicial Magistrate
B.                 High Court
C.                 Session Court
D.                Both (B) and (C)
Ans.    (d)

2.         Point out the incorrect statement-
A.             In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
B.              A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
C.              An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
D.             None of these
Ans.    (d)

3.         The power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High Court can be exercised on an application by which one of the following?
A.                Registrar of the High Court concerned
B.                 AttorneyGeneral of India
C.                 Chairperosn of the Bar Council of India
D.                Solicitor-General of India
Ans.    (b)

4.         Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence passed by the Sessions Court prior to its execution?
            (A)      Section 366   (B)      Section 368
            (C)      Section 369   (D)      Section 371
Ans.    (a)

5.         Which one of the following statements is wrong?
if a person forcibly resists the endeavour to arrest him, the Police Officer may-
A.                Use all the means necessary to effect the arrest
B.                 Cause the death of such person irrespective of the offence he has committed
C.                 Cause the death of such person accused of murder
D.                Cause the death of such person accused of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
Ans.    (b)

6.         Point out incorrect response-
The period of limitation for tatting cognizance of an offence shall be-
A.                Six months if offence is punishable with fine only
B.                 One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
C.                 Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years but not exceeding three years  
D.                Five years, if the offence is punishable with death sentence
Ans.    (d)

7.         In which case has the Supreme Court held that Section 125 Cr.P.C. was applicable to all irresective of their religion?
A.                Mohd. Umar Khan V /s Gulshan Begum
B.                 Mohd. Ahmed Khan V /s Shah Bano Begum
C.                 Mst. Zohara Khatoon V Is Mohd. Ibrahim
D.                Noor Saba Khatoon V/s Mohd. Quasim
Ans.    (b)

8.         Which of the following offences is not compoundable?
A.                Offence u/s. 323 I.P.C.
B.                 Offence u/s. 334 I.P.C.
C.                 Offence u/s. 448 I.P.C.
D.                Offence u/s. 307 I.P.C.
Ans.    (d)

9.         Match list-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
A.                Security for keeping peace on conviction
B.                 Security for good behaviour from suspected persons
C.                 Security for good behaviour from habitual persons
D.                Security of keeping peace in other cases
1.         S-110              2.         S-107             
3.         S-109              4.         S-106
Code:             (a)       (b)       (c)       (d)
            (A)      2          3          1          4
            (B)      4          3          1          2
            (C)      1          2          3          4
            (D)      4          1          2          3
Ans.    (b)

10.       Which section of the Criminal procedure Code provides that, the Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may, with the consent of the court at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any person in respect of any offence for which he is tried?
            (A)      Section 304               (B)      Section 306
            (C)      Section 321               (D)      Section 313
Ans.    (c)

11.       Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act has been substituted for the old section by the Information Technology Act, 2000?
            (A)      Section 39                 (B)      Section 22
            (C)      Section 47                 (D)      Section 65
Ans.    (a)

12.       Which one of the following is not included in the expression 'Court' under the Indian Evidence Act?
A.                All judges
B.                 All persons legally authorized to take evidence
C.                 All Magistrates
D.                Arbitrator
Ans.    (d)

13.       The case of Sawal Das V/s State of Bihar is related to-
A.                Plea of Alibi
B.                 Rule of Res gestae
C.                 rule of Estoppel
D.                Rule of Res judicata
Ans.    (b)

14.       Which Section of the Indian Evidence makes the provision that there shall be no trial on the ground of improper admission rejection of evidence?
            (A)      Section 166               (B)      Section 165
            (C)      Section 167               (D)      Section 161
Ans.    (c)

15.       A confession by an accused can be used against a co-accused under Section Evidence Act-
A.                As hearsay evidence
B.                 Only as corrborative evidence
C.                 As substantive evidence
D.                None of the above
Ans.    (b)

16.       Under Section 57 (1) of the Indian Evidence Act, the Court shall take judicial notice 01-
A.                All laws in force in India
B.                 All laws including foreign laws
C.                 All Indian and Asian laws
D.                All Indian and British laws up to 19
Ans.    (a)

17.       The case of Pakala Narian Swamy V/s Emperor relates to-
A.                Doctrine of estoppel
B.                 Accomplice
C.                 Dying declaration
D.                Cross examination
Ans.    (c)

18.       'A' commits a crime and goes to Police Officer. He makes confession and gives other information. 'A' is charged with the offence The confession-
A.                Cannot be proved against him because of Section 25 of the Evidence Act.
B.                 Can be proved against him because Section 27 of the evidence Act.
C.                 Can be proved against him because Section 25 of the Evidence Act.
D.                Cannot be proved against him because of Section 27 of the Evidence Act.
Ans.    (a)

19.       Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding dumb witnesses?
A.                A dumb witness may give his evidence by writing in open court
B.                 A dumb witness may give his evidence by signs in open court
C.                 Evidence given by a dumb witness writing before the court shall be deemed to be documentary evidence
D.                A dumb witness may give evidence in any manner which can make it intelligible
Ans.    (c)

20.       In a Trial of murder of 'B' by 'A' which fact is not relevent?
A.             'A' was absconding immediately after the murder of 'B'
B.              'A' and 'B' were seen together before murder
C.              'A' had borrowed Rs. 50,000 from B.
D.             'A' was in Bombay on that day while murder of 'B' was committed in Chennai
Ans.    (c)

21.       Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called-
A.                Indecent question
B.                 Scandalous question
C.                 Question intended to annoy
D.                Leading question
Ans.    (d)

22.       Which of the following combination are not correctly matched?

1.Voluntary and direct Acknowledgement of guilt
2.Self-exculpatory Confession of an accused
cannot be used against co-accused
when confessing accused is/not on trial

3.Extra judicial             confession
Corroboration is must
4.Evidence of            police officer
can be take as expert opinion
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
            (A)      1 and 2           (B)      1 and 3
            (C)      3 and 4           (D)      2 and 4
Ans.    (b)

23.       Under Proviso of Section 146(3) of the Evidence Act, in a prosecution for rape in her cross-examination, the prosecutrix-
A.                Can be put question as to her general immoral character
B.                 With the permission of the Court can be put questions as to her general immoral character
C.                 Cannot be put questions as to her general immoral character
D.                Cannot be put question as to her rape
Ans.    (c)

24.       Which one of the following is a correct statement relating to cross examination?
A.                Witnesses to character may be cross- examined
B.                 Leading questions cannot be asked in cross-examination
C.                 A person summoned to produce a document can be cross-examined
D.                A witness may not be cross-examined as to previous statements made by him in writing
Ans.    (a)

25.       Burden of introducing evidence under Section 102 of the Evidence Act-
A.                Sifts at times
B.                 Never shifts
C.                 Constantly shifts
D.                None of these
Ans.    (c)

26.       Civil Procedure Code (U.P. Amendment) Ordinance, 2003 relates to-
A.                Section 105 CPC.
B.                 Section 103 CPC.
C.                 Section 115 CPC.
D.                Section 100 CPC.
Ans.    (c)

27.       Which one of the following is not a rule of pleading?
A.                Plead the fact and not the law
B.                 State the law and plead the facts
C.                 Plead material facts only
D.                Plead facts not evidence
Ans.    (b)

28.       Which one of the following combination are not correctly matched?
1.         Res subjudice                                   Section 11
2.         Res Judicata                          Section 10
3.         Judgement and decree                     Section 33
4.         Summon to witness              Section 80
Select correct answer by using code given ahead-
            (A)      1, 2 and 3       (B)      1, 2 and 4
            (C)      1, 3 and 4       (D)      2, 3 and 4
Ans.    (b)

29.       Which one of the following cases is related to the principle of Resjudicata?
A.                Satyacharan V/s Devrajan
B.                 M.S. Cooperative marketing Federation Ltd. V/s Indian bank Bombay
C.                 P.C. Jairath V/s Amrit Jairath
D.                All the above
Ans.    (a)

30.       Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to-
A.                Section of 17 of C.P.C.
B.                 Section of 18 of C.P.C.
C.                 Section of 19 of C.P.C.
D.                Section of 20 of C.P.C.
Ans.    (b)

31.       All civil courts have jurisdiction to try-
A.                All suits of a civil nature
B.                 All suits civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is expressly not barred
C.                 All suits of civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is impliedly not barred
D.                All suits of civil nature except suits of which their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred
Ans.    (d)

32.       In which one of the following cases it was held that “ Inherent power has not been conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court”?
A.                Manoharlal V/s Seth Hirala
B.                 Cotton Corpoaration of India V/s United Industrial Bank
C.                 Satyabrath Biswas V/s Kalyan Kumar Kisku
D.                Rajani Bai V/s Kamla Devi
Ans.    (a)

33.       “No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties”. It is provided-
A.                Section 96(1) C.P.C.
B.                 Section 96 (2) C.P.C.
C.                 Section 96 (3) C.P.C.
D.                Section 96 (4) C.P.C.
Ans.    (c)

34.       Under Order 8 Rule 6 C.P.C. set off may be permitted if-
A.                The suit is for recovery of property
B.                 Set off claimed by the defendant is ascertained sum of money
C.                 Value of property recoverable is less than rupees two lacs
D.                Defendant presents a written statement of the suit.
Ans.    (b)

35.       Which of the following comiation are correctly matched?
1. Tempororary injuction                    Order 39 C.P.C.
2. Suit by Indigent person                   Order 33 C.P.C.
3. Powers of Appellate                        Section 102 C.P.C.
4. Right to file caveat                           Section 148 A C.P.C.
Select correct answer using the code given below-
(A)        1, 2 and 4                                  (B)  1, 2 and 3
(C)        1, 3 and 4                                  (D)  2, 3 and 4
Ans.    (a)

36.        Point out incorrect answer-
A decree passed by a civil court can be executed by-
A.       The court which passed that decree
B.        The court to which the decree transferred for execution by the court passing the decree
C.        Any court having jurisdiction concurrent to the court that passed the decree
D.       Either by court (A) or (B) as above.
Ans.    (d)

37.        A civil court cannot issue commission in the following case-
A.       for examining a person
B.        for examining accounts
C.        to execute partition
D.       To execute a decree
Ans.    (d)

38.        Which of the following combination are correctly matched-
1. Equity of judgement debtor            Section 49 C.P.C.
2. Priviledged documents                    Section 29 C.P.C.
3. Legal representative                        Section 50 C.P.C.
4. Pauper suit                                        Order 33 C.P.C.
Select correct answer using the code given below
(A)        1, 2 and 3                                  (B)  1, 2 and 4
(C)        2, 3 and 4                                  (D)  1, 3 and 4
Ans.    (d)

39.       Which section of civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest or detention of women in the execution of decree for money?
(A)        Section 55                                (B)  Section 56
(C)        Section 59                                (D)  Section 60
Ans.    (b)

40.        Section 114 of C.P.C. should be read with-
(A)        Order 46 Rule 1                       (B)  Order 47 Rule 1
(C)        Order 47, Rule 3                      (D)  Order 41
Ans.    (b)

41.       Who categorised the subject of Jurisprudence as Expositorial Jurisprudence and censorial Jurisprudence?
            (A)      Holland          (B)      Bentham
            (C)      Kelsen            (D)      Paton
Ans.    (b)

42.       Who described Jurisprudence as Lawyer's extroversion?
            (A)      Savigny                      (B)      Salmond
            (C)      Julius Stone               (D)      Buckland
Ans.    (c)

43.       About the positive approach of law who said, "This is a confluence of command, sanction and sovereignty"?
            (A)      Hart                (B)      Holland
            (C)      Austin                        (D)      Kelsen
Ans.    (a)

44.       The constituional basis of precendent in India is-
A.                Article
B.                 Article 141
C.                 Article 136
D.                Article 14
Ans.    (b)

45.       Fiction Theory is related to which of the following concepts?
A.                   Ownership
B.                    Liability
C.                    Justice
D.                   Legal personality
Ans.    (d)

46.       Which of the following Act/Acts protect the possession concepts?
A.                Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
B.                 Specific Relief Act, 1963
C.                 Both (A) and (B)
D.                None of these
Ans.    (b)

47.       Which theory is not connected with the concept of property?
A.                The Natural law thoery
B.                 The labour theory
C.                 Psychological theory
D.                Realist theory
Ans.    (d)

48.       In the dark age, natural law was given a new interpretation by-
A.                St. Augustine
B.                 Thomas Acquinas
C.                 Paul
D.                Ulpion
Ans.    (a)

49.       Who has rejected the concept of Right as, "Immoral and against the interest of the society"?
            (A)      Laski             (B)      Edward Jenks
            (C)      Buckland       (D)      Duguit
Ans.    (d)

50.       Frederick Karl Von Savigny has observed that-
A.                Custom precedes legislation
B.                 Legislation must conform to customary practices
C.                 Custom is not important than legislation
D.                Custom is superior to legislation
Select the correct answer using the code given below
            (A)      1, 3 and 4       (B)      1, 3 and 4
            (C)      1, 2 and 4       (D)      I, 2 and 3
Ans.    (c)

51.       Kelsen's theory of law is called pure theory because Kelsen-
A.                Purely discussed jurisprudence only
B.                 Defined law in accordance with morality and purity
C.                 Separated law from religion, ethics, sociology and history
D.                Discussed law purely in terms of justice
Ans.    (c)

52.       The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India but the Supreme Court is not bound by its own decisions was held by the Supreme Court itself in-
A.                Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. V /s State of Bihar
B.                 Keshavanand Bharti V / s State of Kerala
C.                 Indira Nehru Gandhi V /s Raj Narian
D.                Madhav Rao Scindia V / s Union of India
Ans.    (a)

53.       Who has made a distinction between 'Law Properly So-called' and 'Law Improperly so- called'?
A.                Jeremy Bentham
B.                 G.W. Paton
C.                 John Austin
D.                Oliver Wendell Holmes
Ans.    (c)

54.       Analytical,    Historical     and     Ethical jurispurdence are three different parts of Jurisprudence according to-
            (A)      Salmond                     (B)      Ihering
            (C)      H.L.A. Hart                (C)      Immanuel Kant
Ans.    (a)

55.       National character of law was introduced in jurisprudence by-
A.                Karl Marx
B.                 Savigny
C.                 Montesquieu
D.                Hans Kelsen
Ans.    (b)

56.       Possession through an agent or servant is an example of-
A.                Immediate possession
B.                 Incorporeal possession
C.                 Mediate possession
D.                Corporeal possession
Ans.    (c)

57.       The main purpose of the corporation sole is to-
A.                Make the property easily inheritable
B.                 Make the property easily transferable
C.                 Maintain continuity of an office
D.                Project the property of the State
Ans.    (c)

58.       In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that secularism is the _basic structure of the Constitution?
A.                S. P. Mittla V /s Union of India
B.                 Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management Committee V /s Chintamani Khuntia
C.                 Aruna Roy V / s Union of India
D.                None of the above
Ans.    (d)

59.       In which of the following case it was ruled that the Government servant has no right to go on strike?
A.                T. R. Rangrajan, V /s State ofTamil Nadu
B.                 Javed V /s State of Haryana
C.                 Shyam Narain Chouksy V /s Union of India
D.                Cehat V /s Union of India
Ans.    (a)
60.       Which of the following are included in the Iist of fundamental duties in the Constitution?
A.             To abide by the Constitution and respect ideals and institutions
B.              To safeguard Public property and abjure voilence
C.              To uphold and protect the sovereign unity and intergrity of India
D.             To uphold and protect secularism
Select the correct answer using the coo given below-
a)                 1,   3,         4
b)                 1,   2,         4
c)                 2,   3,         4
d)                 1,   2,         3
Ans.    (d)

61.       A law which disqualifies a person with more than two children from holding the post Panch/Sarpanch is valid and not violative of Article 14 of the Constitutional. In which of the following recent case the Supreme Court gave such decision?
A.             P.U.C.L. V /s Union of India
B.              Javed V /s State of Haryana
C.              Indira Jaysing V /s Registra General
D.             Mohd. Aslam V / s Union of India
Ans.    (b)

62.       Match Iist-l with Iist-ll and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
A.             Freedom of assembly
B.              Freedom of profession, trade and occupation
C.              Freedom of speach
D.             Freedom of association
1.         Article 19(2)                         2. Article 19(4)
3.         Article 19(3)                         4. Article 19(6)
                  a            b              c             d
A.    3           4              1             2
B.     1           3              2             4
C.     3           2              1             4
D.    2           4              1             3
Ans.          (a)

63.       "What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly". This statement relates to the doctrine of-
A.                Ancilliary power
B.                 Pith and substance
C.                 Colourable legislation
D.                Implied power
Ans.    (c)

64.       Who was the Chairman of "National Commission to review the working of the Constitution"?
A.                Hon'ble Justice J.S. Verma
B.                 Hon'ble Justice O.P. Chinappa Reddy
C.                 Hon'ble Justice R.S. Sarkaria
D.                Hon'ble Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah
Ans.    (d)

65.       Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure of the President?
A.                Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B.                 Attorney General of India
C.                 Comptroller and Auditor General of India
D.                Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Ans.    (b)

66.       Disputes between States in India come to the Supreme Court under -
A.             Appellate jurisdiction
B.              Original jurisdiction
C.              Advistory jurisdiction
D.             Review jurisdiction
Ans.    (b)

67.       Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list provided it is in the-
A.                National interest
B.                 Interest of the minority
C.                 Interest of the public
D.                Interest of the State concerned
Ans.    (a)

68.       The Constitutional Authority vested with power of declaring castes or Tribes as Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the-
A.                Parliament
B.                 Chairman SC/ST Commission
C.                 President of India
D.                Home Minister
Ans.    (c)

69.       What is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem?
A.                Sing and stand respectfully
B.                 Stand respectfully
C.                 Sing the same
D.                To bow
Ans.    (b)

70.       Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
            (A)      Public order             (B)      Social justice
            (C)      Health                                    (D)      Morality
Ans.    (b)

71.       The proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by-
A.                Rajya Sabha and then it will continue till the reconstitution of New Lok Sabha which must approve it within thirty days of its first sitting
B.                 Rajya Sabha only
C.                 Lok Sabha in the next session after six months
D.                New Lok Sabha within six months of its constitution
Ans.    (a)

72.       Money Bill can be introduced-
A.                In either House of Parliament
B.                 Only in Lok Sabha
C.                 Only in Rajya Sabha
D.                None of the above
Ans.    (b)

73.       Which is not a qualification to become a High Court Judge?
A.                He should be a citizen of India
B.                 he has at least ten years of experience as an advocate of High Court
C.                 He has completed the age of 35 years
D.                He has, for at least ten years, held a judicial office in India
Ans.    (c)

74.       In which case the Supreme Court of India held that the "Non-smokers cannot be compelled to be victim of air pollution"?
A.                M.C. Mehta V / s Union of India
B.                 Murli S. Deora V / s Union of India
C.                 Satpal Dang V / s State of Punjab
D.                Sardarilal V / s State of Rajasthan
Ans.    (b)

75.       In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights?
A.                G.K. Krishnan V /s State of Tamilnadu
B.                 Nilabati Behera V /s State of Orissa
C.                 Kasturilal V /s State of U.P.
D.                State of Rajasthan V /s Vidyawati
Ans.    (b)

76.       Which one of the following statements is incorrect according to the Transfer of Property Act?
A.                A transfer of property is made by the act of the parties
B.                 A transfer of property is usually made by one living person to another living person
C.                 A transfer of property can be made even without writing where writing is not expressly required by law
D.                A transfer of property can be made where transfer will operate only after the death of the transferor
Ans.    (d)

77.       Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the Transfer of Property Act?
A.                Muslim woman's claim for unpaid dower
B.                 Right to get damages under the law of torts
C.                 Claim for mense profits
D.                Copyright of a book
Ans.    (a)

78.       An actionable claim can be transferred by-
A.                A registered instrument
B.                 An instrument in writing signed by the transfer
C.                 A registered instrument attested by two witnesses
D.                Oral agreement
Ans.    (b)

79.       'Law favours vesting of and disfavours divesting of interest' is clear from the provisions contained in the following section of the Transfer of Property Act. 1882-
A.                Sections 28 and 29
B.                 Sections 30 and 31
C.                 Sections 32 and 33
D.                Sections 26 and 29
Ans.    (a)

80.       Fraudulent transfer is defined in -
A.                Section 19, Transfer of Property Act
B.                 Section 21, Transfer of Property Act
C.                 Section 53, Transfer of Property Act
D.                Section 35, Transfer of Property Act
Ans.    (c)

81.       Which of the following interests, is n transferable?
A.                Vested interest
B.                 contingent interest
C.                 Spes-successions
D.                Interest of lessee
Ans.    (c)

82.       For creating an interest in favour of an unborn person, which of the following is essential
A.                Creation of a prior life interest in favour of living persons
B.                 Unborn person must be born before termination of last prior life interest
C.                 Absolute interest is to be given to unborn person
D.                All of the above
Ans.    (d)

83.       'A' sells his house to 'B' with a condition that 'B" cannot transfer his house to any one except 'C'. The sale is -
A.                Valid but condition is void
B.                 Void
C.                 Unlawful
D.                Voidable
Ans.    (a)

84.       'A' makes a gift of Rs. 50,000 to'B', A reserve' right with B's consent to take back at pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of Rs. 50,000.
A.                Gift is void
B.                 Gift is valid
C.                 Gift is valid up to Rs. 40,000 and void al to taking back Rs. 10,000
D.                Gift is voidable
Ans.    (c)

85.       A Universal donee is liable to the creditors 0' the donor. The liability of the Universal donee is-
A.                Personal
B.                 To the extent of the value of the gifted property is his hand,
C.                 Based on pious obligation
D.                Limited to a reasonable amount
Ans.    (b)

86.       Which of the following provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code is not related to Appeal?
A.             Section 86
B.              Section 449
C.              Section 450
D.             Section 454
Ans.    (c)

87.       In the absence of a contract or local law or usage to contrary, a lease of immovable property for manufacturing purposes shall be deemed to be-
A.                For 5 years
B.                 From year to year
C.                 From month to month
D.                For a reasonable period
Ans.    (b)

88.       Which of the following is a ground for determination of a lease by forfeiture -
A.                On breach of express condition
B.                 On expiry of lease period
C.                 On surrender by lessee
D.                On vesting of lessors interest in the leassee
Ans.    (a)

89.       Match List - I with List-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
            List-I             List-II
(a) Holding over       1. Mortgage
(b) Universal done   2. Gift
(c) Redemption         3. Lease
(d) Purchaser                        4. Sale
      a         b          c            d
      3        2          1           4
      2        3          4           1
      4        1          2           3
      1        4          3           2
Ans.    (a)

90.            Assertion (A): Legal incidents of a gift include absolute enjoyment of the gift.
                 Reason ®: Donee cannot be restrained in his enjoyment of gift by any condition.
A.             Both A , R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.              Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.              A is true but R is false
D.             A is false but R is true
Ans.    (a)

92.       Which one of the following is not generally an essential element of crime?
            (A)      Actus reus    (B)      Mens rea
            (C)      Motive           (D)      Human being
Ans.    (c)

93.       Which one of the following case is not related to criminal attempt?
A.             Abhayanand Misra V /s State of Bihar
B.              Sudhir Kumar Mukherjee V /s State of West Bengal
C.              State of Maharashtra V /s Mohd. Yakub
D.             State of Rajasthan V /s Om Prakash
Ans.    (d)

94.       The case of R Vis Dudley and Stephen is related to the defence of-
A.             Insanity
B.              Intoxication
C.              Mistake of fact
D.             Necessity
Ans.    (d)

95.       Which of the following combinations are not correctly matched?
1.         Sherras V / s De                    - Mens rea
2.         Barendra Kumar                   - Intoxication
Ghosh V / s Emperor
3.         Abhayadnand                                   - Right to die
Misra V /s State of
4.         Gian Kaur V / s State - Criminal attempt
of Punjab
Select correct answer using the code given below-
            (A)      2, 3 and 4       (B)      1, 2 and 3
            (C)      1, 3 and 4       (D)      1, 2 and 4
Ans.    (a)

96.       Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act.
            Reason (R)   
Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence
A.    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.     Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.     A is true but (R) is false
D.    A is false but (R) is true
Ans.    (b)

97.       The right of private defence of property extends to causing of death when the offence apprehended is-
            (A)      Theft                           (B)      Mischief
(C)      House trespass          (D)      Dacoity
Ans.    (d)

98.       Which one of the following is not an essential element of Section 34 of Indian Panel Code?
A.             Criminal act done by several persons
B.              Criminal act done in furtherance of a common intention
C.              Pre-arranged plan between persons doing criminal act
D.             Act done in furtherance of common object
Ans.    (d)

99.       Which one of the following is not a valuable security?
A.                A postal receipt for an insured parcel
B.                 A rent note
C.                 A promissory note
D.                A deed of divorce
Ans.    (d)

100.    A, in India instigates B, a foreigner in Pakistan to commit a murder in Pakistan. 8 commits murder. In this case-
A.                A is guilty of abetting murder
B.                 A is not guilty of any offence
C.                 A is liable for committing murder
D.                None of the above is correct
Ans.    (a)

101.    'J', a priest, beats a boy for curing him from evil spirit. The boy dies 'J' is-
A.                Not liable for any offence
B.                 Liable for culpable homicide
C.                 Entitled to the defence of good faith
D.                Liable for attempt to murder
Ans.    (b)

102.    Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under-
A.                Section - 376 D, IPC
B.                 Section - 229, IPC
C.                 Section - 228, IPC
D.                Section - 228A, IPC
Ans.    (b)

103.    Use of violence by a member of an assembly of five or more persons in furtherance common object will constitute-
A.                Affrary
B.                 Assault
C.                 Rioting
D.                Unlawful assembly
Ans.    (c)

104.    'A' having lost the receipt for debt which has paid to 'B' makes out another receipt himself and when 'B' sues him puts made-up receipt in evidence. In this case-
A.                'A' is guilty of the offence of for
B.                 'A' is guilty of no offence
C.                 'A' is guilty of cheating 'B'
D.                None of the above answers is correct
Ans.    (a)

105.    'A' intending to commit theft enters house of 'B' at night and removes from of the rooms a box to the courtyard he opens' it. He does not find in the anything worth-taking and leaving the  box there goes away. In this case-
A.                'A' is liable only for house trespas
B.                 'A' is laible for theft
C.                 'A' has comitted no offence
D.                'A' is liable for house trespass attempt to commit theft
Ans.    (d)

106.    'A' house owner tortures his tenant' B in order to compel him to pay his rent realises his dues without causing any hurt to 'B'. Here-
A.             'A' is liable for criminal intimidation under Section 503 of Indian Penal Code
B.              'A' is liable for using criminal force under Section 350 to Indian Penal Code
C.              'A' is liable for extortion under Section  383 of Indian Penal Code
D.             'A' is liable for assault under Section  351 of Indian Penal Code
Ans.    (a)

107.    Which one of the following combinations not correctly matched?
1.         Dowry death             Section 498A
2.         Rape               Section 377
3.         Adultery        Section 497
4.         Robbery         Section 391
Select the correct answer using the code given on. page-
            (A)      1,3 and 4        (B)      I, 2 and 4
            (C)      1,2 and 3        (D)      2, 3 and 4
Ans.    (b)

108.    'A' was on his journey by car from Allahabad to Lucknow 'B' met him in the way and requested for a lift upto Rae Bareli, an intermediate town. 'A' agreed to his request but on reaching Rae Bareli, he did not drop 'B' there in spite of his repeated requests. 'B' was carried over to lucknow against his wishes. Here-
A.                'A' is guilty of kidnapping 'B'
B.                 'A' his committed no offence
C.                 'A' is guilty of wrongfully confining 'B'
D.                'A' is guilty of abducting 'B'
Ans.    (c)

109.    In which case the right of private defence of body does not extend to causing of death?
A.                An assault with the intention of wrongfully restraining a person
B.                 An assault with the intention of comitting rape
C.                 An assault with the intention of kidnaping
D.                An assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust
Ans.    (a)

110.    Which of the following combination is correctly matched?
(A) Involuntary Intoxication-                    - Section 86
(B) Basudeo V /s State of pepsu    - Section 86  
(C) Attempt to Commit suicide      - Section 306
(D) Bigamy                                        - Section 497
Ans.    (b)

111.    A proposal when accepted becomes-
A.                A promise
B.                 A contract
C.                 An agreement
D.                None of the above
Ans.    (a)

112.    Which of the following is a valid acceptance of a proposal?
A.                When an acceptance is made in ignorance of the proposal
B.                 When an acceptance is made in usual and reasonable manner but not in a manner prescribed by the proposer
C.                 When an acceptance is made in a manner prescribed by the proposer
D.                None of the above
Ans.    (c)

113.    An agreement made without free consent is-
A.                Always void
B.                 Voidable
C.                 Unlawful
D.                Either void or voidable
Ans.    (b)

114.    A contract through telephone is considered concluded at the place where acceptance is heard. In which of the following cases it was held?
A.                Bhagwandas V / s Girdharilal
B.                 Carlill V / s Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
C.                 Lalman Shukla V /s Gauridutt
D.                Satyabrata Ghosh V /s Mugneeram
Ans.    (a)

115.    Which of the following cases is related to the doctrine of frustration?
A.                Hadley v /s Baxendale
B.                 Carlill V /s Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
C.                 Satyabrat Ghosh V /s Mugneeram
D.                State Bank of India V / s Quality Bread factory
Ans.    (c)

116.    Which one of the following cases is not related to the damages for breach of contract?
A.                Hadley V / s Baxendale
B.                 State of Rajasthan V /s Novelty Stores
C.                 Madras Railway Co. V /s Govind Rao
D.                Domination of India V /s All India Reporter Ltd.
Ans.    (b)

117.    Assertion (A): All illegal agreements are void, but all void agreements are not illegal.
Reason (R)    Only those agreements, of which the object or consideration is unlawful, are known as illegal agreements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
A.             Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.              Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.              is true but (R) is false
D.             is false but (R) is true
Ans.    (a)

118.    Which of the following agreement is not void?
A.                'A' agrees to sell two hundred tons of oil to 'B'
B.                 An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
C.                 An agreement if restraint of marriage of any person
D.                A finds B's purse and gives it to him. B promises to give 'A' Rs. 100
Ans.    (d)

119.    Match list-I with Iist-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
A.             Novation
B.              Unjust enrichment
C.              Party competent to contract
D.             dispossession of property induced by threat to cause death
1. Sec. 70 I.C.A.        2. Sec. 62 I.C.A.
3. Sec. 15 I.C.A.        4. Sec. 11 I.C.A.
            (a)       (b)       (c)       (d)
(A)      2          1          4          3
(B)      1          2          4          1
(C)      2          3          4          1
(D)      3          1          2          4
Ans.    (a)

120.    A contingent contract dependent on the happening of future uncertain event can be enforced when the event-
A.                Happens
B.                 Becomes impossible
C.                 Does Not happen
D.                None of the above is correct
Ans.    (a)

121.    When prior to the due date of performance, the promisor absolutely refuses to perform the contract, it is known as-
A.                Abandonment of contract
B.                 Actual breach of contract
C.                 Remission f contract
D.                Anticipatory breach of contract
Ans.    (d)

122.    When the agent contracts without disclosing name and existence of his principal, in such a case on knowing about the principal, the third party may file a suit against.
A.                Principal alone
B.                 Agent alone
C.                 Either agent or principal or both
D.                None of the above
Ans.    (c)

123.    ‘A’ is indebted to ‘B’. He authorises ‘B’ to seit his house and to pay himself out of the sale proceeds the debts due to him. In the absence of express contract-
A.                A can revoke the agency
B.                 A cannot revoke the agency
C.                 Aneney is not terminated by A’s death
D.                Both B and C are correct.
Ans.    (d)

124.    Pledge by a seller in possession of goods after sale is-
            (A)      Valid             (B)      Void
            (C)      Voidable        (D)      Unlawful
Ans.    (a)

125.    'A' hires a carriage of 'B'. The carriage is unsafe. 'B' is not aware of faults in carriage, 'A' is injured-
A.                'B' is liable
B.                 'B' is not liable
C.                 'A' and 'B' both are both are liable jointly
D.                all the above are correct
Ans.    (a)

126.    A guarantee which the creditor has obtained by means of keeping silence as to a material circumstance is-
            (A)      Valid             (B)      Invalid
            (C)      Voidable        (D)      None of these
Ans.    (b)

127.    Which of the following sections of Indian Contract Act embodies the rule of Clayton's case relating to appropriation of payments?
A.                Section 59
B.                 Section 61
C.                 Section 60
D.                Section 58
Ans.    (a)

128.    The rule enunciated by Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is applicable to agreements which are reduced void by-
A.             Mistake
B.              Failure of Consideration
C.              Impossibility of performance of contract
D.             All of the above
Ans.    (c)

129.    Assertion (A): Minor's contract is void.
            Reason (R) Mortage executed in favour of a minor is enforceable by him.
A.                Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B.                 Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C.                 is true but (R) is false
D.                is false but (R) is true
Ans.    (b)

130.    Which of the following is not a purpose of the United Nations under Article 1 of the Character?
A.                To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems of social character
B.                 To bring about adjustment of international disputes by peaceful means
C.                 To develop friendly relations among nations
D.                To ensure democratic government and the rule of law in the States of the world
Ans.    (d)

131.    Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
            Tribunal/Court                                                                    Number of Judges
1.   Permanent Court of Arbitration                                               07
2.   International Criminal Court                                        15
3.   International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea           21
4.   U.N. War Crimes Tribunal for Yugosalvia                 15
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
            (A)      2, 3 and 4       (B)      1, 3 and 4
            (C)      1, 2 and 3       (D)      1,.2 and 4
Ans.    (b)

132.    On which date the statue of the International Criminal Court has come into force?
A.                10 December, 2003
B.                 24 October, 2002
C.                 01 July, 2002
D.                01 January, 2003
Ans.    (c)

133.    Under which Article of the U.N. Charter the Security Council has the power to use force against a State?
            (A)      Article 41      (B)      Article 42
            (C)      Article 2(4)   (D) Articles 24
Ans.    (d)

134.    Who can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question?
A.                Any member of the United Nations
B.                 The highest court of Justice of any nation
C.                 The General Assembly of the United Nations
D.                Any permanent member of the Security Council
Ans.    (c)

135.    Which one of the following organs of the United Nations Performs legislative functions?
A.                The General Assembly
B.                 The Economic and Social Council
C.                 The Trusteeship
D.                The Security Council
Ans.    (a)

136.    A new member of the U.N. Is admitted by-
A.                The General Assembly
B.                 The Security
C.                 The General Assembly on the positive recommendation of the Security Council including concurring votes of permanent
D.                The General Assembly on the positive recommendation of the Security Council including concurring votes of peramanent members
Ans.    (d)

137.    The Secretary of the United Nations is appointed-
A.             By the permanent members of the Security Council
B.              By the General Assembly on the recommedation of the Security Council
C.              In a joint session of the Security Council and General Assembly
D.             By the Security Council on the recommendation of the General Assembly
Ans.    (b)

138.    Little Assembly is the body created by-
A.                Security Council
B.                 General Assembly 
C.                 Secretary General
D.                G-8
Ans.    (b)

139.    Which of the following countries is not the member of SAARC?
            (A)      Singapore      (B)      India
            (C)      Pakistan         (D)      Bhutan
Ans.    (a)

140.    Which one of the following States had proposed the creation of Trioka in place of Secretary General of United Nations?
            (A)      U.S.S.R.          (B)      U.S.A.
            (C)      U.K.                (D)      China
Ans.    (a)

141.    Under which of the following the former President of Iraq Saddam Hussain has been granted the status of prisoner of war?
A.                The United Nations Charter, 1945
B.                 The Geneva a Convention No. III, 1949
C.                 The Hague Convention No. I, 1907
D.                The Pact of Paris, 1928
Ans.    (b)

142.    What is the name of the Anti-Terrorism law enacted by the U.S.A. just weeks after the September 11, 2001 attacks  on World Trade Centre?
A.                U.S. Patriot Act
B.                 U.S. Prevention of Terrorism Act
C.                 U.S. Security Act .
D.                U.S. National Safety Act
Ans.    (b)

143.    Which country has declared in December, 2003 to destroy all" Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMDs) and abandon all programmes to develop them?
A.                Isreal
B.                 Brazil
C.                 North Korea
D.                Libya
Ans.    (d)

144.    First Muslim woman to win the Nobel Prize in its 102 years history is-
A.                Taslima nasreen
B.                 Benazir Bhutto
C.                 Shirin Ebadi
D.                Nafisa Sadiq
Ans.    (c)

145.    Who has been apponted as U.S. Civilian, Administrator in Iraq after Saddam Hussain ouster from power?
            (A)      Hans BIix       (B)      Kristin Gilmore
            (C)      Salim Lone    (D)      Paul L. Bremer
Ans.    (d)

146.    Inquiry under Criminal Procedure Code conducted by-
A.                Magistrate only
B.                 Police Officer
C.                 Sessions Court
D.                Magistrate or Court
Ans.    (d)

147.    Which of the following courts can try summarily offences mentioned in Section 260 of Criminal Procedure Code?
A.                Any Chief Judicial Magistrate
B.                 Any Metropolitan Magistrate
C.                 Any magistrate of the first c1a~ specially empowered by the High Court in this behalf
D.                All the above
Ans.    (d)

148.    Which one of the following combination not correctly matched?
1.         Anticipatory bail      -           Section 437 of' Cr.P
2.         Summary                   - Section 384 of Cr.P.
3.         Apeeal in case          - Section 376 Cr. P.
            of acquittal                Code
4.         Reference to             - Section 397 of Cr.P.
            High Court                 Code
Select correct answer using the code given below Code:
            (A)      I, 2and 4         (B)      I, 3 and 4
            (C)      I, 2 and 3        (D)      2, 3 and 4
Ans.    (b)

149.    The procedure for summary trial is provide in the following sections of the Cr. P. Code-
A.                Section 251 to 259
B.                 Section 238 to 250
C.                 Section 260 to 265
D.                Section 266 to 271
Ans.    (c)

General Studies
1.         BCG is a vaccine against-
(A)      T.B.                 (B)      Polio
(C)      Small pox      (D)      Typhoid
Ans.    (a)

2.         Plantation of which of the following is not advisable because it may serve as an allergy tree?
(A)      Neem              (B)      Banyan
(C)      Tamarind       (D)      Gulmohar
Ans.    (d)

3.         Lodized salt is propagated to remove-
A.                Nutritional anemia
B.                 Nutritional blindness
C.                 Nutritional Goitre
D.                Nutritional Vitamin-A deficiency in childhood
Ans.    (c)

4.         Antibiotics destroy
(A)      Worms                       (B)      Lice
(C)      Bacteria         (D)      Mosquito
Ans.    (c)

5.         Which tells the condition of heart?
(A)      EEG                (B)      ECG
(C)      PCG                (D)      EPG
Ans.    (b)

6.         The dialysis is administered when-
A.                The heart is not working
B.                 The kidneys are not working
C.                 The liver is not working
D.                The body is paralysed
Ans.    (b)

7.         The instrument used for measuring the atomsopheric humidity is-
A.             Hygrometer
B.              Barometer
C.              Anemometer
D.             Thermometer
Ans.    (a)

8.         Clouds contain-
A.                Water suspended in air
B.                 Gases only
C.                 Dust particles
D.                Global Warming
Ans.    (a)

9.         The two planets having no satellites are
A.             Earth and Jupiter
B.              Mercury and Venus
C.              Venus and Mars
D.             Venus and Saturn
Ans.    (b)

10.       Which one is not correctly matched?
A.             Kilowatt Hour               Electricity
B.              Celsius                            Temperature
C.              Rg factor                        Blood
D.             Richter scale                  Humidity
Ans.    (d)

11.  The most air-polluting gas emitted by the fumes of motor vehicles is-
(A)  Methane                                  (B)         Carbon-dioxide
(C)  Carbon monoxide                  (D)         Chlorine
Ans.    (c)

12.  Two National Highways Kanya Kumari to Srinagar and Porbandar to Silcher, which are being constructed under National Highway Development Project, shall meet together at-
(A)  Bhopal                                     (B)         Gwalior
(C)  Jhansi                                      (D)         Nagpur
Ans.    (c)

13.  Assertion (A): LPG is a pollution free vehicular fuel.
        Reason ®: Plying of CNG fuelled buses is recommended for metro politan cities of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
A.                Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.                 Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.                 A is true but R is false
D.                A is false but R is true
Ans.    (b)

14.  The largest flower of the world is-
(A)  Lotus                                       (B)         Dahelis
(C)  Sunflower                               (D)         Rafflesia
Ans.    (d)

15.  Which one of the following is a ballistic Missle?
(A)  Akash                                      (B)         Trishul
(C)  Agniq                                       (D)         Prithvi
Ans.    (c)

16.  Wine contains mainly-
(A)  Ethyl alcohol                          (B)         Methyl alcohol
(C)  Acetic Acid                             (D)         Chloroform
Ans.    (a)

17.  ‘Geneco’ technology is-
A.                Defence system for prevention of AIDS
B.                 The method for the development of species of food crops
C.                 Technique for pre-information regarding genetic diseases
D.                Technique for prevention of cataract
Ans.    (c)

18.  Which one of  the following expresses errors in computer data?
(A)           Chip                         (B)     Byte
(C)           Bug                           (D)     Bit
Ans.    (c)

19.  What a microcomputer cannot do?
A.                Adding numbers
B.                 Subtracting numbers
C.                 Performing logic operations
D.                Doing things what it is not told to do
Ans.    (d)

20.  The Green House effect if not checked in next hundred years, would result in-
A.                Freezing of earth
B.                 Rise I temperatures of earth but not in sea level
C.                 Rise in seal level of earth but not in temperature
D.                Rise in both sea level and temperature of earth
Ans.    (d)

21.  Which one of the following statements is correct?
A.                HIV is same as AIDS
B.                 HIV is caused by AIDS
C.                 AIDS is not caused by HIV
D.                AIDS is caused by HIV
Ans.    (d)

22.  The leading gypsum producing State of India is-
A.                Jammu & Kashmir
B.                 Gujarat
C.                 Rajasthan
D.                Tamil Nadu
Ans.    (c)

23.  Assertion (A): DDT though effective on pests has been banned in western countries.
        Reason ®: DDT tends to remain stable in environment for long.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
A.             Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.              Both A and R are true, but R is  not the correct explanation of A
C.              A is true but R is false
D.             A is false but R is true
Ans.    (a)

24.  Electrical workers use rubber gloves in their hands because-
A.    Rubber is a good conductor of electricity
B.     Rubber is a bad conductor of electricity
C.     Rubber keeps hands warm
D.    Rubber goods are beautiful to look at
Ans.    (b)

25.  Who invented Television?
(A)  J.L.Baird                                  (B)         Graham Bell
(C)  G. Maroconi                           (D)         J.J. Thomson
Ans.    (a)

26.  Liquefied Petroleum Gas LPG contains mainly-
(A)  Carbon monoxide                  (B)         Oxygen
(C)  Methane                                  (D)         Propane
Ans.    (d)

27.  Which one of the following is not found in space?
(A)  Black hole                               (B)         Brittle Star
(C)  Quasar                                     (D)         Pulser
Ans.    (b)

28.  Which one of the following is not fundamental particle
(A)  Electron                                   (B)         Proton
(C)  Neutron                                   (D)         Photon
Ans.    (d)

29.  Assertion (A): Woolen clothes keep us warm.
        Reason ®: Wool fibers are made of a particular protein which is a bad conductor of heat.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.             Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.              Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.              A is true but R is false
D.             A is false but R is true
Ans.    (a)

30.  The Biotech of Uttar Pradesh is located at-
(A)  Agra                                         (B)         Gorakhpur
(C)  Lucknow                                 (D)         Varansi
Ans.    (c)

31.  The capital from Delhi to Agra was transferred by-
A.                Mohd. Tughlaq
B.                 Firoj Shah Tughlaq
C.                 Sikandar Lodhi
D.                Ibrahim Lodhi
Ans.    (c)

32.  First Portuguese Governor in India was-
(A)  Almeida                                   (B)         Albuquerue
(C)  Pedro Cabral                           (D)         Vasco da Gama
Ans.    (a)

33.  Akbar’s Din e liahi was not successful because-
A.                After Akbar no one patronized it
B.                 Although  it had imbibed the good principle from other religions, it was not presented in the right manner before the people.
C.                 Muslim were not prepared to accept any other religion
D.                All of the above
Ans.    (d)

34.  In which Centurary did the famous Chinese pilgrim Fahien visited India?
(A)  4th Century                              (B)         5th Century
(C)  6th Century                              (D)         7th Century
Ans.    (b)

35.  Which Muslim Ruler in India introduced Jaziya Tax?
A.                Balban
B.                 Mohammad bin Quasim
C.                 Alauddin Khilji
D.                Firoz Tuhglaq
Ans.    (b)

36.  The caves and rock cut temples in Elora are of-
A.                Buddhist only
B.                 Buddhist and Jains only
C.                 Hindus and Jains only
D.                Hindus, Buddhists and Jains
Ans.    (d)

37.  The Lahore Conspiracy Case resulted in hanging of-
A.             Rama Prasad Bismil
B.              Bhagat Singh
C.              Sukhdev
D.             Rajguru
Choose your answer from the code given below-
            (A)      I and II            (B)      I and III
            (C)      I, II and III      (D)      II, III and IV
Ans.    (d)

38.       The Novel ‘Anand Math’ was written by-
A.                Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
B.                 Dinbandhu Mitra
C.                 Rabindra Nath Tagore
D.                Sharat Chandra
Ans.    (a)

39.       Depressed Classes League was established by-
A.                Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B.                 Babu jagjiwan Ram
C.                 N.S. Kajorlkar
D.                Mahatma Jotiba Phule
Ans.    (a)

40.       ‘Sanchi Stupa’ was built by
A.                Samudra Gupta
B.                 Ashoka
C.                 Krishana Deo Raya
D.                Harsha
Ans.    (b)

41.       Which of the following leading personalities were associated with the formation of the Swaraj Party?
A.             Subhash Chandra Bose
B.              C.R. Das
C.              Jawahar Lal Nehru
D.             Motilal Nehru
Ans.    (d)

42.       In the history of India among the following who is famous for the policy of ‘Market Control’?
(A)      Balban                        (B)      Akbar
(C)      Sher Shah      (D)      Alauddin Khilji
Ans.    (d)

43.       The Battle of ‘Plassey’ was fought between-
A.             The English and the French
B.              The English and the Nawab of Bengal
C.              The English and the nawab of Avadi
D.             The English and the Marathas
Ans.    (b)

44.       The Social Reformer of the 19th Century who vigorously favoured the widow remarriage was-
A.                Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B.                 Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
C.                 Devendra Nath Tagore
D.                Swami Vivekanand
Ans.    (b)

45.       Which of the following dynasties is credited to issue of gold coin in India for the first time?
(A)      The Mauryas             (B)      The Guptas
(C)      The Kushanas                       (D)      The Satavahanas
Ans.    (c)

46.       The Valley of flower lies in the district of-
(A)      Chamoli         (B)      Uttar Kashi
(C)      Dehradun       (D)      Nainital
Ans.    (a)

47.       The most urbanized State of India is-
A.                Gujrat
B.                 Maharashtra
C.                 Tamil Nadu
D.                West Bengal
Ans.    (b)

48.       Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest decadal growth rate of population during-
            (A)      1951-61         (B)      1961-71
            (C)      1971-81         (D)      1981-91
Ans.    (c)

49.       The S.C. population as percent of total population (2001) is highest in-
A.                Andhra Pradesh
B.                 Himachal Pradesh
C.                 Punjab
D.                Uttar Pradesh
Ans.    (d)

50.       The oldest mountain in India is-
            (A)      Aravalli          (B)      Nilgiri
            (C)      Satpura           (D)      Vindhyachak
Ans.    (a)

51.       Assertion (A): Northern plains of India receive Some precipitation during winter season.
            Reason (R): North-East Monsoon is active during winter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A)            Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)             Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)             (A) is true but (R) is false
(D)            (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans.    (a)

52.       The Makrana Marble Quarries lie in-
            (A)      Bihar                         (B)      Gujarat
(C)      Madhya Pradesh       (D)      Rajasthan
Ans.    (d)

53.       Electric locomotives are manaufactured at-
            (A)      Perambur       (B)      Chittaranjan
            (C)      Varansi          (D)      Patiala
Ans.    (b)

54.       The largest produce of Rubber in India is'--
            (A)      Assam                        (B) Karnataka
            (C)      Kerala                        (D) Maharashtra
Ans.    (c)

55.       Which one of the following States experienced the lowest growth rate of population during 1991-2001 ?
(A)      Andhra Pradesh        (B)      Goa
            (C)      Kerala                                    (D)      Tamil Nadu
Ans.    (c)

56.       Pokhran is situated in-
(A)         Gujarat
(B)          Rajasthan
(C)          Madhya Pradesh
(D)         Maharstra
Ans.    (c)

57.       Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A)            Kota - Maharashtra
(B)             Narora - Bihar
(C)             Tarapur - Rajasthan
(D)            Kalpakkam - Tamil Nadu
Ans.    (d)

58.       Match list-l with list-ll and select the correct answer by using the code given below the list-
List-II `                                             List-II
(a) Manganese                        1.         Orissa
(b) Asbestos                           2.         Madhya Pradesh
(c) Nickle                                3.         Rajasthan
(d) Zinc                                   4.         Andhra Pradesh
            (a)       (b)       (c)       (d)
(A)      3          1          4          2
(B)      1          2          3          4
(C)      4          3          2          1
(D)      2          4         1          3
Ans.    (d)

59.       Starting from North to South which one is the correct sequence of the following Sea-ports?
(A)         Channai, Tuticorin, Visakhapatam and Paradip
(B)          Paradip, Chennai, Visakhapatnam and Tuticorin
(C)          Visakhapatna, Paradip, Chennai and Tuticorin
(D)         Paradip, Visakhapatna, Chennai and Tuticorin
Ans.    (d)

60.       ISRO Satellite is located at-
(A)            Thiruvananthapuram
(B)             Ahmedabad
(C)             Banglore
(D)            Sriharikota
Ans.    (c)

61.       The Vice President of India is also-
(A)            Chairman of Lok Sabha
(B)             Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C)             Chairman of the Planning Commission
(D)            Chairman of the Privileges Committee
Ans.    (b)

62.       The first Speaker against whom a motion of No-confidence was moved in Lok Sabha was-
(A)      B. R. Jhakad             (B)      G.V. Mavlankar
(C)      Hukum Singh                        (D)      K.S. Hedge
Ans.    (b)

63.       Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a misleading designation..
Reason ®: He exercises the function only of an Auditor.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A)         Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)          Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct of explanation of A
(C)          A is true but R is false
(D)         A is false but R is true
Ans.    (d)

64.       The Uniform Civil Code operates in-
(A)      Arunchal Pradesh     (B)      Meghalaya
(C)      Goa                             (D)      Sikkim
Ans.    (None)

65.       Which one of the following Bill is not introduced in Rajya Sabha
(A)            Amendment Bill
(B)             Ordinary Bill
(C)             Money Bill
(D)            None of these
Ans.    (c)

66.       According to the law enacted by the Parliament in December, 1999 the legal age for a citizen to become major is-
(A)      23 years         (B)      22 years
(C)      20 years         (D)      18 years
Ans.    (d)

67.       Who of the following was elected President of India unanimously?
(A)            Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(B)             V.V. Giri
(C)             N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D)            Gyani Zail Singh
Ans.    (c)

68.       Which one of the following Fundamental rights under Indian Constitution is not available to all persons?
(A)            Equity before law
(B)             Freedom of religion
(C)             Right against exploitation
(D)            Equality of opportunity
Ans.    (d)

69.       Assertion (A): There is not party system in India.
Reason ®: There are too many political parties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A)            Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)             Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct of explanation of A
(C)             A is true but R is false
(D)            A is false but R is true
Ans.    (d)

70.       The first Joint Meeting of the Council of the States and the House of People was held in connection with the –
(A)         Bank Nationalisation Bill
(B)          Dowry Abolition Bill
(C)          Gold Control Bill
(D)         Hindu Code Bill
Ans.    (b)

71.       The term of any State Legislative Assembly can be extended during Emergency by the-
(A)         President of India
(B)          Governor of State concerned
(C)          Union Parliament
(D)         State Legislative itself
Ans.    (c)

72.       The Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh at the time of P.A.C. revolt was-
(A)         Chaudhary Charan Singh
(B)          Kamplapati Tripathi
(C)          H.N. Bahuguna
(D)         Banarsi Das
Ans.    (c)

73.       Which of the following case comewithin the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?
(A)            Disputes between the Centre and the States
(B)             Disputes between the State
(C)             Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(D)            Protection from violation of the Constitution.
Ans.    (c)

74.       Constitution of India was declared as passed on-
(A)          November 26, 1949
(B)           January 26, 1950
(C)           January 26, 1948
(D)          November 26, 1948
Ans.    (a)

75.       Which of the following High Court gave a historic verdict that “ Bands organised by political parties were unconstitutional and illegal. They violate fundamental rights of the citizen?
(A)            Mumbai
(B)             Kolkata
(C)             Punjab and Haryana
(D)            Kerala
Ans.    (b)

76.       Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists-
List-I                                                   List-II
Persons                                               Place
(A)      Sardar Patel                         1.       Nankana
(B)       Gautam Buddha                  2.       Kapil Vastu
(C)       Mahatma Gandhi                3.       Karamsad
(D)      Guru Nanak                         4.       Porbander
        a         b           c             d            
(A)            1           2             3             4
(B)             2           1             4             3
(C)             3           2             4             1
(D)            4           3             2             1
Ans.    (c)

77.             Which out of the following women cliders on Everest was the youngest?
(A)            Dicky Dolma
(B)             Santosh Yadav
(C)             Bachendri Pal
(D)            Suman Katiyal
Ans.    (a)

78.       Which of the following countries did not impose sanctions on India after it conducted nuclear test at pokharan?
(A)  Japan                             (B)         Canada
(C)  Sweden          (D)         France
Ans.    (d)

79.  A.P.J. Kalam was conferred ‘Bharat Ratna’ for his investigations in which field?
(A)         Solar Energy
(B)          Medicines
(C)          Defence
(D)         Missile Technology
Ans.    (d)

80.  Who won the 1st Gold medal for India in the thirteenth Asian Games?
(A)         Dinko Singh
(B)          Geet Singh
(C)          Jyotirmayee Sikdar
(D)         Damyanti Darsh
Ans.    (c)

81.  The Gokul Gram Scheme is associated with the State of-
(A)         Uttar Pradesh
(B)          Andhra Pradesh
(C)          Gujarat
(D)         Rajasthan
Ans.    (c)

82.  What is Golden Quadrillateral Project?
(A)         It is a project to connect four important trade centres of the world by air
(B)          It is a project to develop four centres in for corners of the country to attract tourists.
(C)          It is a project to connect four important metropolitan cities of India by a fourlane fast road track
(D)         None of the above
Ans.    (c)

83.  ‘Interpol’ is an international
(A)            News Agency
(B)             Intelligence Organisation
(C)             Petorleum Trade Organisation
(D)            Police Organisation
Ans.    (d)

84.  Which of the following is the accepted definition of Black Money?
(A)         It is illegal income
(B)          It is secret and undisclosed income
(C)          It is the income which cannot be judtified
(D)         It is the income on which tax has been evaded
Ans.    (d)

85.  India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is headed by-
(A)            Prime Minister
(B)             President
(C)             Chief of Strategic Forces Command
(D)            National Security Advisor
Ans.    (a)

86.  What are ‘Diamond Parks’?
(A)         They are National parks located on hill stations in India and developed by Central Ministry of Environment
(B)          They are place where petroleum refineries are located
(C)          They are industrial centres being developed for encouraging the manufacturing and export of diamonds, synthetic games and jewellery
(D)         They are places where big power projects are located.
Ans.    (d)

87.  Who is known as the ‘Father of e-mail’?
(A)            Bill Gates
(B)             Timothy Bill
(C)             Lincoln Geltisberg
(D)            Ray Tamlison
Ans.    (c)

88.  The 2004 Olympic Games will be held at-
(A)  Busan                            (B)         Bangkok
(C)  Athens            (D)         Sydney
Ans.    (c)

89.  Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A)         Sachin Tendulkar-Cricket
(B)          Bhai Chung Bhutia Football
(C)          Dhanraj Pillay Badminton
(D)         Mahesh Bhupati Tennis
Ans.    (c)

90.  ‘Yuan’ is the currency of-
(A)  China                             (B)         Singapore
(C)  Sourth Korea (D)         Poland
Ans.    (c)

91.  SAARC has it permanent Secretariat at-
(A)  Kathmandu                   (B)         Delhi
(C)  Dacca                                           (D)     Islamabad
Ans.    (a)

92.  Who was bestowed all the following awards?
1.            Nobel Prize
2.            Bharat Ratna
3.            Magsaysay
A.          Jawahar Lal Nehru
B.           C.V. Raman
C.           Rabindra Nath Tagore
D.          Mother Teresa
Ans.    (c)

93.  Which of the following African countries is the member of commomwealth without being a part of former British empire?
(A)  Kenya                            (B)         Mozambique
(C)  Uganda           (D)         Zimbabwe
Ans.    (b)

94.  The W.T.O. Headquarters are located at-
(A) Geneva           (B)         New York
(C)  Paris               (D)         Seattle
Ans.    (a)

95.  ‘Ankleshwari’ is place in-
A.                Bihar where oil refinery has been built
B.                 Madhya Pradesh where s fertilizer plant has come up
C.                 Orissa, universally known for temples
D.                Gujarat where oil has been found recently
Ans.    (d)

96.  The 2007 Cricket World Cup will be held in-
(A)  Austrilia         (B)         England
(C)  New Zealand (D)         West Indies
Ans.    (d)

97.  Who among the following is the world’s first woman cosmonaut?
A.             Bachendri Pal
B.              Junko Tabei
C.              Valentena Tereshkova
D.             Sally Ride
Ans.    (c)

98.  Who was the 1st woman among the following to become the Prime Minister of a country in the world?
A.             Benazir Bhutto
B.              Indira Gandhi
C.              Margaret Thatcher
D.             Sirimavo Bhandarnaike
Ans.    (d)

99.  The name of the Chicago Physician who wants to clone a human, is+
(A)  Carl Feldbaum                            (B)     David Heed
(C)  Dr. Friedman                (D)         Dr. Richard Seed
Ans.    (d)

100.                        The controversial film ‘FIRE’ was directed by-
(A)  Ketan Mehta                (B)         Deepa Mehta
(C)  Mahesh Bhatt                              (D)     Mira Nair
Ans.    (b)

101.                        The recommendation for uniform rates of sales tax by all the States was made by-
A.                10th Finance Commission
B.                 Ministry of Finance Govt. of India
C.                 Indian Planning Commission
D.                Chelliah Committee
Ans.    (d)

102.                        The sick industrial unit in India is one which-
A.             Has incurred cash losses during the current and preceding five financial years
B.              Has accumulated losses equal to or more than its net worth
C.              Has failed to repay three consecutive loan istalments
D.             All the three above
Ans.    (d)

103.          The largest item of expenditure in the current account of the Central Government budget is-
A.          Defence expenditure
B.           Subsidies
C.           Interest payments
D.          Expenditure on social services
Ans.    (c)

104.                        Which of the following items is the highest foreign exchange earner in India?
A.             Software
B.              Gems and Jewellery
C.              Tea
D.             Cotton Textiles
Ans.    (a)

105.                        ‘Hydrocarbon Vision 2025’ is associated with-
A.             Storage of Petroleam Products
B.              Euro-I & Euro-II vehicles
C.              Green House effect
D.             None of the above
Ans.    (b)

106.          Which among the following organisations are responsible for canalizing exports and India?
A.             Minerals and Metal Trading Corporation
B.              Exim Bank
C.              State Trading Corporation
D.             Food Corporation
Select the correct answer from the code given below-
(A)  I, II, III and IV                              (B)     II and IV
(C)  I and III                          (D)         II, III and IV
Ans.    (a)

107.                        Which one of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
A.             Issue of notes
B.              Banker’s Bank
C.              Government Bank
D.             Accepting deposits from the public
Ans.    (d)

108.                        The maximum tax revenue is received by the Government of India from-
A.             Corporate tax
B.              Income Tax
C.              Union Excise Duty
D.             Import duty
Ans.    (c)

109.                        Who has been called the ‘Father of Green Revolution; in India?
A.             V.K.R.V. Rao
B.              C.H. hunmantha Rao
C.              M.S. Swaminathan
D.             M.L. Dantwala
Ans.    (c)

110.    The leading fish producing State of India is-
            (A)      Gujarat           (B)      kerala
            (C)      Orissa                         (D)      West Bengal
Ans.    (c)

111.    Which among the following is not an it non-plan expenditure of the Cen Government?
(A)            Defence Expenditure
(B)             Payment of Subsidy
(C)             payment of Interest
(D)            Allocation for Science & Technology
Ans.    (b)

112.    Fastest growth in recent times has recorded in which of the following?
(A)            Gems and Jewellery
(B)             Computer Software
(C)             Oil Refining
(D)            Steel
Ans.    (b)

113.    The agnecy which estimates national income of India is-
1.                  Reserve Bank of India
2.                  Planning Commission
3.                  Ministry of Finance
4.                  Central Statistical Organisation
Ans.    (d)

114.    Who is the custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves of India?
A.             A project to control floods
B.              Reserve Bank of India
C.              State Bank of India
D.             Foreign Affairs Ministry
Ans.    (b)

115.    What is 'Operation Flood'?
A.             A Project to control floods
B.              A project of check deforestation
C.              A project to promote dairying in the country
D.             None of these
Ans.    (c)

116.    To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to-
            (A)      SEBI               (B)      RBI
            (C)      SBI                  (D)      ICICI
Ans.    (a)

117.    'Garibi Hatao' slogan was transformed into a Plan with the objective of removal 01 poverty in-
A.                3rd  Five Year Plan
B.                 Three Annual Plans
C.                 5th  Five Years Plan
D.                7th  Five Year Plan
Ans.    (c)

118.    What is the meaning of 'Support Price'?
A.             Subsidy paid by government over price
B.              Minimum selling price   
C.              Minimum selling price at which the government suarantees to purchase
D.             Money paid to farmers in case of drought or floods
Ans.    (c)

119.    Assertion (A): Our agriculture growth rate is small even after proper planning and investment.
Reason (R): Land reforms have not been carried out up to the mark
Select your correct answer from the code given below-
A.                Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.                 Both A and Rare true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.                 A is true but R is false
D.                A is false but R is true
Ans.    (a)

120.    Assertion (A): The rate of inflation in India has come down in the last three years.
Reason (R):  The country has received large amount of foreign capital during these years.
Select your correct answer from the code given below-
A.                Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B.                 Both A and Rare true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.                 A is true but R is false
D.                A is false but R is true
Ans.    (b)

121.    The name of the operation which American forces adopted to arrest former President Saddam Hussain was-
A.                Operation Clear
B.                 Operation Victory
C.                 Operation Red-cross
D.                Operation Red Don
Ans.    (d)

122.    Among the following the leap year is-
A.                2004
B.                 1982
C.                 1978
D.                1998
Ans.    (a)

123.    Which of the following does not belong to the U.N.O.?
            (A)      F.A.O.             (B)      L.L.O
            (C)      W.H.O.           (D)      ASEAN
Ans.    (d)

124.    Sharjah is located in-
            (A)      Iraq                             (B)      Kuwait
            (C)      Saudi Arabia                         (D)      U.A.E.
Ans.    (d)

125.    The largest rail route in the world is between
A.             Buenos Aires to Valparaso
B.              Cape to Cairo
C.              leningrad toVladivostok
D.             Leningrad to Volgograd
Ans.    (c)

126.    2010 Commonwealth Games will be organised in-
            (A)      Canada           (B)      New Zealand
            (C)      India               (D)      Australia
Ans.    (c)

127.    The largest producer of Petroleum in the word is-
            (A)      China             (B)      Iran
            (C)      Saudi Arbia   (D)      U.S.A.
Ans.    (d)

128.    Indian Cricketer who has the largest record of winning in foreign land is
(A)      Sunil Gavaskar         (B)      Ajit Wadekar
(C)      Sourav Ganguli         (D)      Kapil Dev
Ans.    (b)

129.    Which one of the following is Not a nuclear power?
            (A)      China             (B)      Japan
            (C)      U.S.A.             (D)      Russia
Ans.    (b)

130.    Which one of the following is not currently matched?
A.             Corbett National Park     Uttranchal
B.              Kaziranga National Park            Assam
C.              Bandipur National Park Andhra
D.             Nagarhola National Park            Karnataka
Ans.    (c)

131.    Nobel Prizes are awarded by-
A.                Norway Government
B.                 Sweden Government
C.                 Royal Swedish Academy
D.                Switzerland Government
Ans.    (c)

132.    India's first satellite launched from Soviet Cosmodrome was-
A.             Aryabhatta
B.              Bhaskara
C.              Rohini
D.             Apple
Ans.    (a)

133.    Which of the following helps in establishing parenthood?
A.                Gene-therapy
B.                 Gene-cloning
C.                 DNA finger printing
D.                DNA recombinant technology
Ans.    (c)

134.    Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
A.             Nagarjun Sagar - Krishna
B.              Sardar Sarovar -   Narmada
C.              Tehir Dam                         Bhagirathi
D.             Gandhi Sagar        Sabarmati
Ans.    (d)

135.    Zimbabwe was earlier known as-
A.             Southern Rhodesia
B.              Gold Coast
C.              Ivory Coast
D.             Belgian Congo
Ans.    (a)

136.    The World 'AIDS' Day is observed on-
            (A)      December, 1 (B)      November, 14
            (C)      December,23             (D)      December, 10
Ans.    (a)

138.    The Indian States which have common borders with Pakistan are-
A.          Jammu Kashmir and Punjab only
B.           Jammu Kashmir, Punjab and Rajasthan only
C.           Gujarat, Jammu Kashmir, Haryana and Rajasthan
D.          Gujarat, Jammu Kashmir, Punjab and Rajasthan
Ans.    (d)

139.    International Day of Peace as per the UNO directions is celebrated on-
(A)      September 24                        (B)      September 16
(C)      October 2                   (D)      None of these
Ans.    (d)

140.    The present Secretary General of the United Nations organization is-
A.             Boutros Boutros Ghali
B.              Kofi Annan
C.              U. Thant
D.             Dag Hammarskjoeld
Ans.    (b)

141.    The computer system which links and stores information among different countries in the world through  a satellite is known as-
A.                Apppolo
B.                 INSAT 2-D
C.                 Internet
D.                Albania
Ans.    (c)

142.    Mother Teresa was a native of
A.             Croatia
B.              Yugoslavia
C.              Bosnia
D.             Albania
Ans.    (b)

143.    The ‘World Environment Day’ falls on-
(A)      5th June          (B)      14th June
(C)      2nd October    (D)      15th July
Ans.    (a)

144.    The Mc Mohan Line bordering India  and China has been drawn on Northern  boundary of-
A.                Jammu & Kashmir
B.                 Himachal Pradesh
C.                 Arunachal Pradesh
D.                Uttar Pradesh
Ans.    (c)

145.    Which one of the following States is not bilingual?
(A)      Nagaland       (B)      Sikkim
(C)      Karnataka      (D)      Tripura
Ans.    (c)

146.    Which one of the following States  is not bilingual?
(A)      L.M. Singhvi             (B)      J.M. Lingdoh
(C)      V.N. Khare                (D)      Yashwant Sinha
Ans.    (b)

147.    Which of the following countries are members of the ‘European Union?
1.         Portugal         2.         Belgium
3.         Greece                        4.         Poland
Choose the correct answer from the code given below-
(A)      1, 2 and 4                   (B)      1, 3 and 4
(C)      2, 3 and 4                   (D)      1, 2 and 4
Ans.    (d)

148.    Ist Indian woman to fly in U.S.  Space Craft Space Shuttle Columbia Flight STS  87 on Nov. 19, 1997 was-
A.                Kalpana Chawla
B.                 Diana Edulji
C.                 Bachendri Pal
D.                Amrita Shergill
Ans.    (a)

149.    The largest group of islands in the world is-
A.                Japan
B.                 Indonesis
C.                 Fiji
D.                Andman and Nicobar Islands
Ans.    (b)

150.    In 2003 the Chief Guest on the Republic Day was
A.             Qasim Utteem
B.              Olusogun Obasanjo
C.              Thabo Mbki
D.             Syd. Mohd. Khatmi
Ans.    (d)

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