M.P. Judicial Service Exam., 2009
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1. Who administers oath of the Governor of
a State?
A.
President of India
B.
Chief Justice of the State High Court
C.
Advocate General of the State
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
2. A person whose fundamental rights are
violated can move the High Court under:
A.
Article 20
B.
Article 226
C.
Article 32
D.
Article 22
Ans. (b)
3. Which of the following protects
personal freedom?
A.
Quo warranto
B.
Mandamus
C.
Habeas Corpus
D.
Certiorari
Ans. (c)
4. Preamble of the Constitution declares
India as:
A.
a Socialist Democratic Republic
B.
a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
Republic
C.
a Sovereign Democratic Republic
D.
a None of the above
Ans. (b)
5. Who among the following was the
Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee?
A.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B.
Motilal Nehru
C.
M.K. Gandhi
D.
Sardar Patel
Ans. (a)
6. Power granted to a Court under Section
151 of the code of Civil Procedure is known as:
A.
Inherent power
B.
Appellate power
C.
Revisional power
D.
Reviewing power
Ans. (a)
7. An application for amendment of
pleadings is filed under:
A.
Order 6 Rule 17
B.
Order 6 Rule 5
C.
Order 38 Rule 5
D.
Order 21 Rule 1
Ans. (a)
8. Provisions
with regard to res judicata are provided in Section ………. of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.
A.
Section 9
B.
Section 12
C.
Section 100
D.
Section 11
Ans. (d)
9. A person instituting a suit in form of
a pauper is known as:
A.
Intelligent person
B.
Juristic person
C.
First person
D.
Indigent person
Ans. (d)
10. A suit shall be instituted in a Court
within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:
A.
The plaintiff resides
B.
The Stamp Paper for entering into the
contract was purchased.
C.
Where no cause of action in part or full
arose
D.
Where the cause of action or in part
arose.
Ans. (d)
11. An agreement in restraint of marriage of
any person other than a minor is a:
A.
Legal Contract
B.
Voidable Contract
C.
Fraudulent Contract
D.
Void Contract
Ans. (d)
12. A
and B contract to marry each other, before the time fixed for the marriage, A
goes mad the contract becomes:
A.
Voidable Contract
B.
Conditional Contract
C.
Contingent Contract
D.
Void Contract
Ans. (d)
13. A
proposes by a letter to sell his house to B for certain price, communication of
this proposal is complete when:
A.
A dispatches the letter
B.
A has completed writing the letter
C.
B gets information about posting of the
letter
D.
B receives the letter
Ans. (d)
14. Where
the order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed is expressly fixed
by the contract, they shall be performed in that order: and where the order is
not expressly fixed it shall be performed.
A.
In that order which the nature of
transation require.
B.
In the order as one of the parties
prefer
C.
As desired by the proposal
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
15. A
promises to obtain for B an employment in public service and B promises to pay
Rs. 1,000 to A the agreement between A and B
A.
Is Legal and proper
B.
Can be enforced at the instance of B
C.
Is Void agreement
D.
None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. A
person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings
with the third person is:
A.
A principal
B.
A pawnor
C.
An agent
D.
A bailor
Ans. (c)
17. Insurance is a:
A.
Contingent contract
B.
Wagering contract
C.
Contract of indemnity
D.
Contract of guarantee
Ans. (a)
18. Copies made from or compared with the
original is:
A.
Primary evidence
B.
Secondary evidence
C.
Inadmissible evidence
D.
None of these
Ans. (b)
19. Whether
confession made to a Police Officer (while not in custody) by a person accused
of an offence can be proved against him and is a ………………..Evidence.
A.
Admissible
B.
Not admissible
C.
Partially admissible
D.
None of these
Ans. (b)
20. The following is not the exception of the
rule of hearsay?
A.
Dying declaration
B.
Res gestae
C.
Medical Expert’s Opinion
D.
Confession
Ans. (c)
21. A
is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket, the burden of proving
that he had a ticket is on:
A.
Prosecution
B.
Accused
C.
Complainant
D.
Prosecution witness
Ans. (b)
22. Amongst
the following who is not a Revenue officer as defined under the Madhya Pradesh
Land Revenue Code?
A.
Commissioner
B.
Collector
C.
Settlement Officer
D.
Chirman, Board of Revenue
Ans. (d)
23. Revision
powers are exercised by the Board of Revenue Under………. of the Madhya Pradesh
Land Revenue Code.
A.
Section 40
B.
Section 44
C.
Section 46
D.
Section 50
Ans. (d)
24. A
Bhumiswami can seek partition of his agricultural land amongst his legal heirs
during his life time by applying to the :
A.
Patwari
B.
Village Kotwar
C.
Tahsildar
D.
Superintendent of Land Record
Ans. (c)
25. Which
amongst the following is not the duty of a Patel appointed under the Madhya Pradesh
Land Revenue Code?
A.
To collect and pay Land Revenue into the
Gram Kosh
B.
To furnish report regarind state of his
village
C.
To prevent encroachment on waste land,
public path and roadways
D.
To maintain land records
Ans. (d)
26. Who
is competent to transfer a revenue case from one District to another under
Section 29 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code?
A.
State Government
B.
Board of Revenue
C.
Chief Secretary
D.
Revenue Minister
Ans. (b)
27. If
a Bhuniswami is dispossessed of the land other wise then in due course of law
who can be ordered for restoration of the possession?
A.
Tahsildar
B.
Commissioner
C.
Collector
D.
S.D.O.
Ans. (a)
28. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained
by the :
A.
Patwari
B.
Kotwar
C.
Sub Divisional Officer
D.
Tahsildar
Ans. (c)
29. Which
one of the following matter is not provided for in a Nistar Patrak; terms and
conditions on which :
A.
Grazing of cattle in the village is
permissible
B.
The right to fishing may be obtained by
a resident
C.
Wood, Timber or Fuel may be obtained by
a resident
D.
Mooram, Knakar or Sand may be obtained
by a resident.
Ans. (b)
30. ……………is not defined in the Code?
A.
Orchard
B.
Arrears
C.
Co operative Society
D.
Alluvion
Ans. (d)
31. The relief provided under the Specific
Relief Act is:
A.
Discretionary
B.
Mandatory
C.
Statutory
D.
Obligatory
Ans. (c)
32. In
a suit specific performance of contract the plaintiff can seek a relief only if
the establishes that:
A.
Prima facie case is in his favour
B.
He was willing and ready to perform his
part of the contract
C.
Balance of Convenience is in his favour
D.
He may suffer irreparable loss
Ans. (d)
33. Find out the correct statement.
Specifice
Relief can be granted:
A.
For enforcing individual civil rights
and not for enforcing a penal law
B.
For enforcing penal law and not for
enforcing civil right
C.
Only for enforcing penal law
D.
For enforcing civil rights and a penal
law
Ans. (a)
34. No suit for recovery of possession may be
instituted under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act:
A.
Against Government
B.
Against a Public Company
C.
Against a Private Company
D.
Against all of these
Ans. (a)
35. Find out the incorrect statement in
respect of temporary injunctions:
A.
Preventive relief granted at the
discretion of the Court.
B.
Such as are of continue until a
specified time or until the further order of the Court
C.
Regulated by the Code of Civil
Procedure.
D.
Cannot be granted at any stage of a
suit.
Ans. (d)
36. In
which of the following cases would the specific performance of any contract not
be enforced by the Court?
A.
Where the property is not an ordinary
article of commerce
B.
Where the property consists of goods
which are not easily obtainable in the market
C.
Where compensation in money can be
afforded for non performance of the contract as an adequate relief.
D.
Where there exists no standard for
ascertaining the actual damage caused by non performance of the contract.
Ans. (c)
37. Which
of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision
of Section 14 of the Act?
A.
Execution of a formal deed of partner
ship
B.
Contract for the construction of any
building or execution of any other work on land.
C.
Contract which is determinable in its
nature
D.
Contract to execute a mortgage or
furnish any other security for repayment of any loan which the borrower is not
willing to repay at once.
Ans. (c)
38. An instrument as defined under Section 3
of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means:
A.
A Negotiable Instrument
B.
A Transferable Instrument
C.
A non testamentary Instrument
D.
A will
Ans. (c)
39. Where
on a Transfer of Property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person
to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the
Tranfer is called:
A.
Conditional Transfer
B.
Tranfer by Interest
C.
Absolute Transfer
D.
Contingent Transfer
Ans. (d)
40. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
covers:
A.
Movable Property
B.
Immovable Property
C.
None
D.
A and B both
Ans. (d)
41. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
a person is said to have notice of a fact when:
A.
He actually knows the fact
B.
May have knowledge about the fact
C.
Could with reasonable cause know the
fact
D.
Is not at all aware of the fact.
Ans. (a)
42. A mortgage by deposit of title deed is
called:
A.
Anomalous mortgage
B.
English mortgage
C.
Equitable mortgage
D.
Usufructuary mortgage
Ans. (c)
43. Which of the following is not an
actionable claim?
A.
Right to a Provident Fund Account
B.
Promise to pay Rs. 500 if promisee
succeed in LL.B. examination
C.
Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee
marries a particular woman.
D.
Right to claim benefit of a contract
coupled with a liability.
Ans. (a)
44. …………. is defined as a security for
repayment of a loan.
A.
Pledge
B.
Mortgage
C.
Lease
D.
None of these
Ans. (b)
45. The
normal term of office of a member nominated to a Gram Nyalyalaya constituted
under the Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 is:
A.
Two years
B.
Three Years
C.
Five years
D.
Six years
Ans. (c)
46. The State Government establishes Gram
Nayalaya for every:
A.
District
B.
Tahsil
C.
Five years
D.
Six years
Ans. (d)
47. Every
person nominated as a member of the Gram Nyayalaya before assuming office shall
submit a declaration to the effect that:
A.
He shall continue to be a member of
political party
B.
He shall not pay subscription to any
political party.
C.
He shall not hold any office of profit
D.
He shall cease to be a member of
political party from the date he assumes office
Ans. (c)
48. A
Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 is not
empowered to inquire or to try an offence under section:
A.
326 I.P.C.
B.
323 I.P.C
C.
336 I.P.C.
D.
426 I.P.C.
Ans. (a)
49. A
Gram Nyayalaya shall not have exclusive jurisdiction under Section 16(ii) of
M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 to inquire and try offences under:
A.
Cattle Trespass Act
B.
M.P. Juvenile Smoking Act
C.
Protection of Women from Domestis
Violence Act
D.
Section 13 of the Public Gambling Act
Ans. (c)
50. A Gram Nyayalaya should make endeavor to:
A.
Compromise a dispute
B.
Should not compromise
C.
Should make endeavor to punish the wrong
doer
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
51. If
a landlord contravenes the provision of Subsection (1) of Section 38 of the
M.P. Accommodation Control Act, he shall be punished with imprisonment for a
term which may extend to:
A.
Two years
B.
Six months
C.
One months
D.
Three months
Ans. (d)
52. A
suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide need for non
residential purpose is covered under Section ………of the Madhya Pradesh
Accommodation Control Act.
A.
12 (1) a
B.
12 (1) b
C.
12 (1) e
D.
12 (1) f
Ans. (d)
53 The
special provision for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide
requirement of a landlord as provided under Chapter IIIA of the Madhya Pradesh
Accommodation Control Act is applicable to:
A.
A widow or a divorced wife
B.
A woman in employment in
non-governmental establishment
C.
A married woman living with her husband.
D.
A business woman.
Ans. (a)
54. Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act,
1961 is not applicable to:
A.
Accommodation which is used for
non-residential purpose
B.
Accommodation which is the property of
the Government
C.
Accommodation which is the property of a
widow.
D.
Accommodation which is the property of a
minor children.
Ans. (b)
55. No
suit for the eviction of a tenant shall be maintainable on the grounds
specified under Section 12(1) e or 12-1-f, unless a period of ………..has elapsed
from the date of acquisition.
A. One
year
B. Two
year
C. Three
year
D. Five
year
Ans. (a)
56. An
appeal shall lie from every order of the Rent Controlling Authority made under
Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961:
A.
District Judge
B.
Collector
C.
Commissioner
D.
High Court
Ans. (a)
57. Which of the following act cannot from
ground of eviction of the tenant?
A.
Nuisance
B.
Disclaimer of the title of the landlord
C.
Material structural alteration
D.
Holding over
Ans. (b)
58. Anticipatory bail under Section 438 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means:
A.
A direction to release a person on bail
issued after a person is arrested.
B.
A direction to release a person on bail
issued even before a person is arrested or is in apprehension of arrest.
C.
A direction to release a person on bail
from judicial custody.
D.
A direction to release a person on bail
when he is in police custody after being arrested.
Ans. (b)
59. Inherent
Powers under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be exercised
by:
A.
Judicial Magistrate First Class
B.
Sessions Judge
C.
High Court
D.
Chief Judicial Magistrate
Ans. (c)
60. Information
regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an Officer Incharge
of a Police Station under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973?
A.
Section 149
B.
Section 154
C.
Section 155
D.
Section 200
Ans. (b)
61. A………….
is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973.
A.
Wife unable to maintain herself
B.
Divorced wife (not re-married)
C.
Minor daughter
D.
Divorced wife re married
Ans. (d)
62. The Court of Magistrate of the First
Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term:
A.
Not exceeding three years or a fine not
exceeding Rs. 10,000.
B.
Not exceedings one year or a fine not
exceeding Rs. 5,000
C.
Not exceeding three years or a fine not
exceedings Rs. 5, 000
D.
Not exceeding seven years or a fine
prescribed under the Code
Ans. (a)
63. An
offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means as
provided under Section 326 of the Indian
Penal Code is:
A.
Compoundable
B.
Non Compoundable
C.
Compoindable wit the permission of Court
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
64. An inquest report must contain:
A.
The names of accused
B.
The apparent cause of death
C.
The details of weapons
D.
The details of incident
Ans. (b)
65. If
it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is traible
exclusively by the Court of Session, he, under Section 202 Cr. P.C. postponing
the issue of process against the accused.
A.
Shall commit the case to the Court
of Session
B.
May direct an investigation to be made
by a police officer.
C.
Shall call upon the complainant to
produce all his witnesses and examine them on oath.
D.
Shall return the complaint for
presentation before the Court of Session.
Ans. (c)
66. A
person himself does not commit an
offence, he helps or aids another person, he is guilty of:
A.
Abetment
B.
Conspiracy
C.
Incitement
D.
None of these
Ans. (a)
67. ………….. of the Indian Penal Code definces
Murder.
A.
Section 299
B.
Section 300
C.
Section 301
D.
Section 302
Ans. (b)
68. Which of the following is not Public
Servant withing the meaning of Section 21 of the Code?
A.
Municipal Commissioner
B.
Member of Parliament
C.
MLA
D.
Examiner of University
Ans. (d)
69. A married man commits adultery if he has
sexual intercourse with a/an:
A.
Unmarried woman
B.
Married woman except his wife
C.
Any woman except his wife
D.
Unmarried woman without her consent.
Ans. (b)
70. Cruelty to a woman by husband or relative
of husband is defined under:
A.
Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code
B.
Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code
C.
Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code
D.
Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code
Ans. (a)
71. Who is the Chairperson of Identification Authority
of India UIA?
A.
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
B.
Nandan Nilekani
E.
Shreedharan
C.
M.N. Buch
Ans. (b)
72. Who won the 2009 Wimbledon on July 5,
2009?
A.
Pete Sampras
B.
Refael Nadal
C.
Roger Federer
D. John
Mcenroe
Ans. (c)
73. Which country has the largest Rail
Network in the World?
A.
India
B.
U.K.
C.
China
D. U.S.A.
Ans. (d)
74. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
A.
Sharad Pawar
B.
Kapil Sibbal
C.
Verrappa Moily
D.
Hansraj Bharadwaj
Ans. (c)
75. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli
Radhakrishnan, President of India, is celebrated as:
A.
Lawyer’s Day
B.
Teacher’s Day
C.
Children’s Day
D.
Father’s Day
Ans. (b)
76. Tirupati is in:
A.
Andhra Pradesh
B.
Karnataka
C.
Tamil Nadu
D.
Kerala
Ans. (a)
77. Kanha National Park is situated in which
District?
A.
Jabalpur
B.
Shahdol
C.
Umaria
D.
Mandla
Ans. (d)
78. River Narmada originates from:
A.
Bhedaghat
B.
Amarkantak
C.
Dindori
D.
Allahabad
Ans. (b)
79. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930
A.
Against atrocities committed on Harijans
B.
Against imposition of Salt Tax
C.
Against the commencement of Communal
Riot
D.
Against prohibition on Indian’s
participating in elections
Ans. (b)
80. Who is the author of My Experiments with
Truth?
A.
Nehru
B.
Tagore
C.
Gandhi
D.
Jinnah
Ans. (c)
81. NASA refers to:
A.
National Aeronautics and Space
Administeration
B.
North Atlantic Space Agency
C.
North Airbase and Space Agency
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
82. I.S.O. 9000 is a:
A.
Quality Standard Mark
B.
Space Project
C.
Trade Technique
D. None
of these
Ans. (a)
83. Who among the following made a film on
Mahatma Gandhi?
A.
Aparna Sen
B.
Shyam Benegal
C.
James lvory
D.
Richard Attenborough
Ans. (d)
84. Law Day is observed on
A.
26th January
B.
15th August
C.
26th May
D.
26th November
Ans. (d)
85. Which is the longest sea bridge in the
country?
A.
Vidyasagar Setu, Kolkata
B.
Bandra Worli Sea Link Mumbai
C.
Bhakra Nangal Project
D.
None of these
Ans. (b)
86. Dr. Rajendra Pachauri is a/an :
A.
Banker
B.
Industrialist
C.
Environmentalist
D.
Scientist
Ans. (c)
87. Who is the author of Discovery of India?
A.
Jawaharlal Nehru
B.
Mahatma Gandhi
C.
Sarojini Naidu
D. Indira
Gandhi
Ans. (a)
88. D.N.A. refers to:
A.
Di-oxyribo Nuclecic Acid
B.
Di-oxide Nucleic Acid
C.
Different Nucleic Acid
D.
None of these
Ans. (a)
89. S.M.S. is:
A.
Short Messaging Sequence
B.
Short Messaging Service
C.
Short Manageable Service
D.
Short and Medium Service
Ans. (b)
90. Padma Bhushan Award is:
A.
Gallantry Award
B.
Bravery Award
C.
Civilian Award
D.
Literary Award
Ans. (c)
91. Which city is known as the City of Joy?
A.
Delhi
B.
Mumbai
C.
Kolkata
D.
Chennai
Ans. (c)
92. Who is the Chief Justice of Madhya
Pradesh High Court?
A.
Justice R.S. Garg
B.
Justice Dipak Misra
C.
Justice A.K. Patnaik
D.
None of these
Ans. (c)
93. Who won the ASHES Cricket Test Series
held in year 2009?
A.
Australia
B.
England
C.
Pakistan
D.
None of these
Ans. (b)
94. Who appoints a judge of a High Court?
A.
Governor
B.
Chief Minister
C.
President of India
D.
Chief Justice of India
Ans. (c)
95. Which of these animals is not shown in
the National Emblem of India?
A.
Lion
B.
Horse
C.
Bull
D.
Elephant
Ans. (d)
96. Which is the Mother State of
Chhattisgarh?
A.
Bihar
B.
Uttar Pradesh
C.
Uttarakhand
D. Madhya
Pradesh
Ans. (d)
97. The Principal Seat of the Madhya Pradesh
High Court is at:
A.
Jabalpur
B.
Bhopal
C.
Gwalior
D.
Indore
Ans. (a)
98. How may Civil Districts are there in the
State of Madhya Pradesh ?
A.
48
B.
49
C.
50
D. 51
Ans. (c)
99. Who
won the men’s 100 meter final race at the recently held 2009 IAAF Athletics
World Championship in Berlin?
A.
Tyson Gay of Americe
B.
Usain Bolt of Jamaica
C.
Asafa Powell of Jamaica
D.
Yang Yong Eun of South Kerea
Ans. (b)
100. The Finance Minister has proposed
replacement of the Income tax Act by:
A.
The Finance Act, 2008
B.
The Direct Tax Act
C.
The Indian Taxation Code
D.
The Direct Taxes Code
Ans. (d)
Courtesy:- Legal Point Foundation
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