M.P. Judicial Service Exam 2007
|
|
1. Which document is not admissible
without formal proof?
A.
Admitted Document
B.
Medical Report
C.
Report of Chief Inspector of Explosives
D.
Report of a Director of the Fingerprint
Bureau
Ans. (a)
2. What is not true?
“Magistrate
may discharge the accused if complainant is absent on date of hearing” if
offence is:
A.
Compoundable or
B.
Non-cognizable
C.
Before charge has been framed
D.
Provision would be applicable for
complaint case and police case both
Ans. (d)
3. When
a surety to a bond dies before the bond is forfeited. The liability in respect
of bond:
A.
Shall not be discharged
B.
Shall be discharged
C.
Court has dicreation to remit any
portion
D.
There is no provision
Ans. (b)
4. As soon as the judgment or final order
disposing of a case is signed:
A.
Court may alter the sentence
B.
Review the judgment
C.
Correct a clerical error
D.
May begin retrial of the case
Ans. (c)
5. Appeal in case of acquittal by a
Magistrate may lie in:
A.
High Court
B.
Sessions Court
C.
C.J.M’s Court
D.
No appeal lie
Ans. (b)
6. What
is the time limit of Section 468 of CrPC for taking cognizance in a case of
defamation?
A. Six
months
B.
One year
C.
Three years
D. No
limit
Ans. (c)
7. What is the meaning of “Not proved”
under Evidence Act?
A. Fact
does not exist
B.
Non existence probable
C.
Court has doubt
D. Neither
proved nor disproved
Ans. (d)
8. A is accused of the murder of B by
beating him. What is not admissible as evidence?
A.
Whatever was said by A or B by standers
at the time of beating
B.
A has intention for murder of B
C.
Marks on the ground of struggle between
A and B
D.
A is a man of bad character
Ans. (d)
9. Facts
not otherwise become relevant if they are inconsistent or makes highly probable
or improbable any fact in issue or a relevant fact
A.
Cannot be relevant
B.
Relevant U/s 11 of Evidence Act
C.
Relevant U/s 9 of Evidence Act
D.
Relevant U/s 7 of Evidence Act
Ans. (b)
10. A
rustic woman in apprehension of assault and maltreatment makes a confession for
murder of her mother in law at the Village Panchayat. Whether this confession
is admissible?
A.
As extra judicial confession
B.
Inadmissible due to involuntariness
C.
As a supporting evidence to the fact
deposed by the other witness
D.
Partly admissible
Ans. (b)
11. Provisions Section 32 (1) of Evidence Act
are attracted, where-what is not true?
A.
The cause of death is required to be
ascertained
B.
The deceased statement is related to the
cause of death
C.
To circumstances connected with death
D.
Verbal statement is not admissible
Ans. (d)
12. What type of secondary evidence relating
to public documents may be given?
A.
oral evidence about contents
B.
Certified copy of the document
C.
Photostat copy
D.
Written admission
Ans. (b)
13. What is not true about the mode of proof
for a will?
A.
One attesting witness at least to be
examined.
B.
No necessary to call any attesting
witness if will has been registered.
C.
Not proof required if it is admitted by
an heir of the executant
D.
Where attesting witness not found
handwriting of attesting witness and signature of executant must be proved.
Ans. (b)
14. Execution of document may be presumed If
the document is to be old:
A.
Ten years
B.
Twenty years
C.
Thirty years
D.
Fourty years
Ans. (c)
15. Who may not testify?
A.
An accomplice
B.
Child
C.
Dumb person
D.
Lunatic-who is unable to understand
question and to give a rational answer.
Ans. (d)
16. What is not true?
A.
Witness may be cross examined as to
previous statement in writing.
B.
Leading question may be asked in cross
examination
C.
Person called to produce document can be
cross examined
D.
Party calling the witness may cross
examine him with the permission of Court.
Ans. (c)
17. What are privileged Document?
A.
Statement is departmental enquiry
B.
Any communication between Chief Minister
and Governor of State
C.
The accident register kept by a medical
practitioner
D.
A defamatory imputation about a person
in the instructions to an advocate
Ans. (d)
18. Civil death may be presumed. if it is
proed that one has not been heard of for:
A.
10 years
B.
20 years
C.
12 years
D.
7 years
Ans. (d)
19. When did M.P. Accommodation Control Act,
1961 become applicable?
A. From
30th November 1961
B.
From 30th December 1961
C.
From 15th November 1961
D. From
15th December 1961
Ans. (b)
20. What
is not included in accommodation as defined under M.P. Accomodation Control
Act, 1961?
A.
Part of building
B.
Garden
C.
Garage
D.
Government’s school building
Ans. (d)
21. A landlord can increase the standard rent
per year:
A.
10%
B.
12%
C.
14%
D.
15%
Ans. (a)
22. B
is tenant in a shop of landlord A, situsted in the city of Gwalior for the last
11 years. Court has passed a decree of eviction. What compensation shall be
paid by landlord?
A.
Not liable to pay any compensation
B.
Equal to double the amount of the annual
standard rent
C.
Equal to the amount of the annual
standard rent
D.
Lump sum amount Rs. 3,000
Ans. (b)
23. What
is not correct: Landlord recovered possession of any Accommodation in pursuance
of a decree on the ground of bonafide requirement for self residence . Then he
without permission of the rent control authority:
A.
Shall never re let the accommodation
B.
Shall no re let the accommodation within
6 months
C.
Shall not re let the accommodation
within one year
D.
Shall not re let the accommodation
within 2 years
Ans. (d)
24. On
being repaired and constructed the accommodation in pursuance of a decree on the ground for
repairing and reconstruction of the accommodation in how much time a tenant may
recover possession of the accommodation?
A.
Within two months
B.
Within one month
C.
Within three months
D.
Within six months
Ans. (b)
25. A
landlord cannot recover possession under Sectin 20 M.P. Accomodation Control
Act 1961 in one of the following conditions:
A.
the tenant has ceased to be in the
employment of the landlord
B.
the tenant has contravened the agreed
terms
C.
the accommodation is required bonafide
by the public institution for the furtherance of its activities
D.
The tenant has not paid the rent
Ans. (d)
26. Rent
control authority shall decide, as far as may be an application under Section
23 A M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 within the following time:
A.
Two months
B.
Three months
C.
Six months
D.
Twelve months
Ans. (c)
27. Revision against the order passed by the
rent control authority shall lie:
A. Before
District Court
B.
Before High Court
C.
Before Collector
D. Before
Commissioner
Ans. (b)
28. Landlord
has withhold the supply of water, tenant can submit complaint before whom?
A.
Collector
B.
Sub divisional Officer
C.
Rent Control Authority
D.
Sub divisional Magistrate
Ans. (c)
29. Any
offence punishable under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 shall be
tried by:
A. Any
Magistrate
B.
Magistrate First Class
C.
Magistrate Second Class
D. Sub-divisional
Magistrate
Ans. (b)
30. Landlord
files a suit for eviction on the ground of bonafide requirement for self
residence. He must send notice to tenant:
A.
Before one month
B.
Before two months
C.
No notice is required
D.
Before three months
Ans. (a)
31. Which one of the following properties may
be transferred?
A.
Mere Easement
B.
A right to future maintenance
C.
Immovable property
D.
A mere right to sue
Ans. (c)
32. A transfers Rs. 5000 to his niece B if
she will desert her husband. The transfer is:
A. Voidable
B.
Void
C.
Legal
D. Enforceable
Ans. (b)
33. A
transfers Rs. 5000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C,
D and E. E dies. B marries with the consent of C and D. It is deemed that:
A. B
has fulfilled the condition
B.
B has not fulfilled the condition
C.
Condition became void
D. Condition
became illegal
Ans. (a)
34. A
, a Hindu, who has separated from his father B sells to C three fields X, Y and
Z representing that A is authorized to transfer these field. Z does not belong
to A but on B’s death. A as their obtains Z. C did not rescind the contract:
A. Contract
became infructuous
B.
C may require A to delever Z to him
C.
Contract is void
D. Contract
is unenforceable
Ans. (b)
35. A
owing half share and B and C each a quarter share of mauza Sultanpur exchange
one eight share
A.
One fourth share
B.
One eight share
C.
One half share
D.
One sixteenth share
Ans. (d)
36. Transfer of property pending suit
thereto, the transfer shall be:
A.
Void
B.
Affected subject to the decree or order
of the Court
C.
Illegal
D.
Infructuous
Ans. (b)
37. What is not correct the liabilities of
the seller is that he is:
A.
to disclose to the buyer any material
defected in the property
B.
to produce to the buyer for examination
all documents of title relating to the property
C.
not to answer to the best of his
information all the relevant questions put to him by the buyer in respect of
the title.
D.
to give possession to the buyer as its
nature admits.
Ans. (c)
38. Where
the principal money secured is 100 rupees a mortage other than a mortage by
deposit of title deeds. What is not correct about it?
A.
Must be signed by the mortgagor
B.
Must be attested by at least two
witnesses
C.
Can be affected by oral agreement
D.
Must be by a registered instrument
Ans. (d)
39. Mortgaged
property in possession of the mortgage has, during the continuance of the
mortgage received any accession upon redemption
in the absence of a contract to the contrary. Who shall be entitled to
such accession?
A.
Mortgagee
B.
Mortgagor
C.
Mortgage and mortgagor in equal share
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
40. A lease of immovable property does not
determine:
A. By
efflux of the time limited thereby
B.
On death of the lessor
C.
By surrender
D. Where
such time is limited, conditionally on the happening of some event by the
happening of such time.
Ans. (b)
41. A made a gift of property to B. Before
acceptance by B, A dies. Gift is:
A. Legal
B.
Illegal
C.
Void
D. Voidable
Ans. (c)
42. A
owes money to B who transfers the debt
to C. B when demands the debt from A who not having received notice of the
transfer as prescribed in Section 131 of the T.P. Act, 1882 pays B. The payment
is:
A. Legal
B.
Illegal
C.
Enforceable
D. Not
enforceable
Ans. (c)
43. The agreement which is not enforceable
legally-is called
A.
Voidable
B.
Void
C.
Illegal
D.
Voidable contract
Ans. (b)
44. A
agrees to sell a horse worth Rs. 1000 for Rs. 10 A’s consent to the agreement
was freely given. The agreement is:
A.
Voidable
B.
Void
C.
Contract
D.
Illegal
Ans. (c)
45. Which one of the following ingredients is
not necessary for contract?
A. Proposal
B.
Acceptance
C.
Consideration
D. Immovable
Property
Ans. (d)
46. All illegal contracts are void but all
void contracts are not:
A.
Legal
B.
Illegal
C.
Enforceable
D.
Voidable
Ans. (b)
47. A
intending to deceive B falsely represents that five hundred tons of indigo is
made annually at A’s factory and thereby induce B to by the factory. The
contract is:
A.
Void
B.
Voidable at the option of A
C.
Voidable at the option of B
D.
Illegal
Ans. (c)
48. A
promise to maintain B’s child. B promises to pay A Rs. 1000 yearly for the
purpose. The consideration is:
A.
Lawful
B.
Unlawful
C.
No consideration
D.
None of these
Ans. (a)
49. A
agrees to sell to B a hundred tons of oil. There is nothing whatever to show
kind of oil was intended. The agreement is:
A. Voidable
B.
Void
C.
Enforceable
D. Non-enforceable
Ans. (b)
50. A agrees to pay B a sum of money, if B
marries C. C marries D. The agreement is:
A. Void
B.
Voidable
C.
Legal
D. Illegal
Ans. (a)
51. A
promises to paint a picture for B within 10 days at a price of Rs. 1000. A dies
before the days. The contract is:
A.
Enforceable
B.
Non enforceable
C.
Voidable
D.
Void
Ans. (d)
52. A
contracts to sing for B at a concert for Rs. 1000 which are paid in advance. A is too ill to sing. Then:
A. A
must refund to B Rs. 1000 paid in advance
B.
A must not refund to B Rs. 1000 paid in
advance
C.
B can receive compensation from A
D. None
of the above
Ans. (a)
53. A,
a tradesman leaves his goods at B’s house by mistake. B uses the goods as his
own. Then:
A. B
need not pay to A
B.
B is bound to pay A
C.
There is no contract
D. None
of these
Ans. (b)
54. A
is consideration that B will employ C in collecting the rent of B’s Zamindari,
promises B to be responsible to the amount of Rs. 5000 for the due collection
and payment by C of those rents. This is
A. No
guarantee
B.
Simple guarantee
C.
Continuing guarantee
D. None
of these
Ans. (c)
55. When did M.P. Land Revenue Code 1959 come
into force?
A.
1.10.1959
B.
1.11.1959
C.
2.10.1959
D.
2.11.1959
Ans. (c)
56. Agriculture does not include:
A. Garden
product
B.
Biza plantation
C.
Thatching grass
D. Grazing
grass
Ans. (b)
57. The
distribution of cases amongst the President and members of the Board of Revenue
shall be done by:
A.
State Government
B.
High Court
C.
Governor
D.
Chairman, Board of Revenue
Ans. (a)
58. The
limitation for filling appeal before Collector, against the order passed by
Revenue officer is:
A.
30 days
B.
45 days
C.
60 days
D.
90 days
Ans. (b)
59. Revision shall lie against the order
passed by the Tahsildar:
A. Before
Commissioner
B.
Before Collector
C.
Before Sub divisional officer
D. Before
superintendent land records.
Ans. (b)
60. Any
dispute regarding rights in the land arises under Section 57 (1) M.P. Land
Revenue Code 1959 between State Government and any person shall be decided:
A.
By Tahsildar
B.
By Collector
C.
By Sub divisional officer
D.
BY State Government
Ans. (c)
61. Patwaris circles are framed:
A.
By State Government
B.
BY Commissioner
C.
By Board of Revenue
D.
BY Collector
Ans. (d)
62. On
dispute regarding entry in Khasra, any person shall apply to the Tahsildar for
its correction from the date of such entry:
A.
Within one month
B.
Within six months
C.
Within twelve months
D.
Within twenty four months
Ans. (c)
63. There shall be one class of tenure
holders of land to be known as:
A.
Leaseholder
B.
Bhumiswami
C.
Agriculturist
D.
Zamindar
Ans. (b)
64. Bhumiswami shall not transfer the land
without permission, if he of:
A.
Other Backward Class
B.
Scheduled Caste
C.
Aboriginal Tribe
D.
Ex Zamindar
Ans. (c)
65.
Bhumiswami who cannot lease her land
for more than one year:
A. Widow
B.
Married woman
C.
Unmarried woman
D. Deserted
woman
Ans. (b)
66. Village Penal is appointed by:
A. Collector
B.
Sub-divisional officer
C.
Tahsildar
D. Revenue
Inspector
Ans. (a)
67. Wajib ul arj shall not record:
A.
Right for irrigation
B.
Right to drinking water
C.
Right to way
D.
Right to fishing
Ans. (b)
68. Aggrieved
person may not apply for a review of an order or judgement of a Civil Court, on
one of the following grounds:
A.
A decree or order from which an appeal
is allowed but from which no appeal has been preferred
B.
A decree or order is passed i~ absence
of aggrieved person
C.
A decree or order from which no appeal
is allowed
D.
A decision on a reference from a court
of small cause
Ans. (b)
69. Order
for disposal of property at conclusion of trial by Criminal Court. What is not
correct?
A.
By destruction
B.
By confiscation
C.
Delivery to any person claiming to be
entitled to possession
D.
By declaration of title of any person to
the ownership of property
Ans. (d)
70. Judge
has power to put question or order production of document. What is not true?
A.
Parties shall not be entitled to make
objection to any such question or order.
B.
Parties shall be entitled to cross
examine the witness upon answer given in reply of such question as a right
C.
Without the leave of Court party shall
not be entitled to cross examine
D.
Judge shall not be entitled to compel
any witness to answer or produce document which is refusable under Section 121
to 131 Evidence Act.
Ans. (b)
71. Suit for partition of immovable property
be instituted in the Court where:
A. Plaintiff
resides
B.
Plaintiff carries on his profession
C.
Subject matter is situated
D. With
the permission of the Judge, in any Court
Ans. (c)
72. Court
may make order for the payment of Compensatory costs from any party submitting
false, claim or defence:
A.
up to Rs. 5000
B.
upto Rs. 3000
C.
upto Rs. 1000
D.
Any amount without limit
Ans. (b)
73. Question which shall be determined by the
Court executing decree:
A.
Decree obtained by fraud
B.
Whether any person is or is not the
representative of a party
C.
Decree obtained by collusion
D.
None of the above
Ans. (b)
74. The property which is not liable to
attachment and sale in execution of decree
A. Government
securities
B.
Promissory Note
C.
Books of Account
D. Bond
Ans. (c)
75. Court may not issue a commission:
A.
to examine any person
B.
to examine accounts
C.
to perform any ministerial act
D.
to arrest a person
Ans. (d)
76. Which of the following is not powers of
appellate court?
A. Have
power to deter finally
B.
Have power to remand the
C.
Not have power to take additional
evidence
D. Have
power to frame issue and refer them for trial
Ans. (c)
77. The plaint shall not be rejected in one
of the following conditions:
A.
Where it does not disclose a cause of
action
B.
Where it is not submitted by an advocate
C.
Where the relief claimed in undervalued
and it is not corrected after the order of Court
D.
Where the suit appears from the
statement in the plaint, to be barred by law
Ans. (b)
78. Auction purchaser shall pay full of
purchase money:
A. within
7 days
B.
within 15 days
C.
within 21 days
D. within
30 days
Ans. (b)
79. Which one of the following is not
essential condition for application of Res Judicata?
A.
Previous suit was finally heard and
decided by the Court of Competent Jurisdiction
B.
Previous suit must be pending before a
Court
C.
Parties in previous and the subsequent
suits must be the same
D.
Subject matter of previous and the
subsequent suits must be the same
Ans. (b)
80. Proceeding in a suit, relating to minor
shall not be stayed:
A.
On retirement of the next friend of a
minor
B.
On attaining the majority by the minor
C.
On removal of the next friend of a minor
D.
On death of the next friend of a minor
Ans. (b)
81. Temporary injunction may be granted:
A. To
restrain any election
B.
To restrain dispossession from property
C.
To restrain any intended disciplinary
action against public servant
D. To
restrain the result of any adverse entry against the public servant
Ans. (b)
82. In
how much time, respondent may file cross- objections from the day of service of
the notice of the hearing of appeal?
A.
In 45 days
B.
In one months
C.
In 45 days
D.
In 21 days
Ans. (b)
83. What is not movable property under
Section 22 I.P.C.?
A. Soil
B.
Cheque
C.
Tree
D. Fish
in a tank
Ans. (c)
84. What is not correct about the self
defence?
A. Nothing
is offence which is done in exercise of right of private defence
B.
Right of private defence is extended to
causing death in the case of robbery
C.
Right of private defence is extended to
causing death in defamation case
D. There
is no right of private defence, if there is time to have recourse to the
protection of public authorities.
Ans. (c)
85. A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to
do so:
A. B
is guilty of abetment
B.
A is guilty of abetment of murder
C.
A and B both are guilty of abetment
D. None
of the above
Ans. (b)
86. Y
holds Z down and. fraudulently takes Z's money from Z's clothes without Z's
consent. Y has committed:
A. Theft
B.
Extortion
C.
Dishonest misappropriation of property
D. Robbery
Ans. (d)
87. Which ingredient is not essential for
rioting?
A.
Unlawful assembly of five or more
persons
B.
Common object of the unlawful assembly
as specified under Section
C.
Accused joined or continued in such
unlawful assembly
D.
There must be definite disturbance of
the public peace on public place .
Ans. (d)
88. Minimum
sentence for ‘Ten years imprisonment’ is necessary for which of these offences:
A. Section
326 voluntarily Causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon
B.
Section 376 (2) g Gang rape
C.
Section 395 Dacoity
D. Section
409 Criminal breach of trust by a public servant.
Ans. (b)
89. 'A'
without any excuse fires a gun shot into a crowd of persons and kills two of
them-A is guilty of:
A. Murder-Section
302
B.
Causing death by negligence-Section
304(A)
C.
Culpable homicide not amounting to
murder-Section 304
D. No
offence
Ans. (a)
90. A is accused of rape. What defence is
permissible to him according to law:
A.
They love each other and want to marry
B.
He lost his control under circumstances
C.
She consents to the act of sexual
intercourse
D.
None of the above
Ans. (c)
91. What
punishment may be awarded for the offence voluntarily causing hurt to deter a
public servant from his duty under Section 332 I.P.C.?
A. Imprisonment
up to three years or fine or both
B.
Imprisonment up to five years and fine
or both
C.
Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
or both
D. Imprisonment
up to ten years and fine or both
Ans. (a)
92. A
makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds there no
jewel in it. A is guilty of attempt of theft. What punishment may be awarded to
him:
A.
The same punishment as for theft
B.
One half of the term of imprisonment
provided for the offence of theft or with such fine as provided for the offence
or with both
C.
Express provision is provided 101
punishment "Attempt to Theft" in In Penal Code
D.
Only Fine
Ans. (b)
93. What
ingredient is not necessary for offence punishable under Section 279 I.P.C. (Rash
driving on public way):
A.
Driving of Vehicle
B.
On a public way
C.
Such driving must be so rash negligent
as to endanger human life
D.
Persons were on road
Ans. (d)
94. A and B agree to fence with each other
amusement. A while playing fairly hurts B:
A.
A is liable for voluntarily causing hurt.
B.
A is liable for assault
C.
A has committed no offence
D.
A is liable to compensate B
Ans. (c)
95. What offence is bailable?
A.
Mentioned as bailable offence in I Schedule
of CrPC
B.
All cases of summon's trial
C.
All non-cognizable offences
D.
All cases which are not triable by
Ans. (a)
96. Warrant
may be issued in lieu or in addition to summons “Recording of reasons in
writing” is a condition precedent.
A.
Is this statement true
B.
Is this statement not true
C.
Depends on discretion of Court
D.
There is no such provision
Ans. (a)
97. Who may claim for maintenance under
Section 125 of Cr PC?
A.
Wife who has her own source of income.
B.
Illegitimate minor child
C.
Stepson or daughter
D.
Brother and sister
Ans. (b)
98. A
minor girl lived with her father at Indore. She became intimate with the
accused and ran away with the accused from Indore to Bhopal in a taxi. After
some time they eventually settled in Mumbai. An offence of kidnapping may be
tried:
A. at
Indore
B.
at Bhopal
C.
at Mumbai
D. at
any place mentioned above
Ans. (d)
99. Who may record a confessional statement
under Section 164 CrPC?
A.
Police officer
B.
Executive officer
C.
Judicial Magistrate who has jurisdiction
only
D.
Any Judicial Magistrate
Ans. (d)
100. Who may complain for 'Bigamy' under Section
494 I.P.C.?
A.
Mother, Father, Brother or Sister on
behalf of wife
B.
Police
C.
Any social institute
D.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
Courtesy:- Legal Point Foundation
No comments:
Post a Comment