09 March, 2016

Bihar Judicial Service Exam. 2009 P.T.

Bihar Judicial Service Exam. 2009
Judicial Exam. P.T.
General Exam
1.         Chandragupta Maurya was
A.           An autocrat
B.           A Statesman
C.           A liberal ruler
D.          An enlightened despot
Ans.     (d)

2.         Who was the author of Kumarasambhava?
A.           Bhasya
B.           Shudraka
C.           Kalidas
D.          Harisena
Ans.     (c)

3.         In spite of her virtues Razia was not successful because
A.           She married Altuniya
B.           She used to behave like a man
C.           Of her orthodox religious belief
D.          Nobles disliked the rule of a woman
Ans.     (d)

4.         The great exponent of Nirgun School was
A.           Tulsidas
B.           Surdas
C.           Kabir
D.          Mirabai
Ans.     (c)

5.         Which chronological order of Babur’s battles in India is correct?
A.           Panipat, Ghaghara, Chanderi, Khanuah
B.           Panipat, Chanderi, Khanuah, Ghaghara
C.           Panipat, Khanuah, Chanderi, Ghaghara
D.          Panipat, Khanuah, Ghaghara, Chanderi
Ans.     (c)

6.         The man who led the Revolt in Bihar was
A.           Amar Singh
B.           Bhanwar Singh
C.           Nana Sahib
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

7.         Who wrote India Wins Freedom?
A.           Subhas Bose
B.           Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
C.           Jawaharlal Nehru
D.          Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Ans.     (b)

8.         Who started Bengalee a famous newspaper of Calcutta?
A.           W.C. Bonnerjee
B.           Surendranath Banerjea
C.           R.D. Banerji
D.          B.C. Pal
Ans.     (b)

9.         Which  of the following is fresh water lake?
A.           Phalodi
B.           Koleru
C.           Shambhar
D.          Pullicut
Ans.     (b)

10.       Which one of the southern most mountain range of India?
A.        Nilgiri Range
B.        Annamalai Range
C.        Nallamalai Range
D.       Cardamam Hills
Ans.     (d)

11.       In India which area in Known as store house of coal?
A.           Raniganj
B.           Bokaro
C.           Jhria
D.          Talchar
Ans.     (a)

12.       Mr. Vivek Kundra joined U.S. President Obama’s administration as
A.           Federal Chief Health Officer
B.           Federal Chief Information Officer
C.           Chief of the Bureau of Budget
D.          Member of Federal Power Commission
Ans.     (b)

13.       Name the cricketer whose record of taking highest number of catches by a non wicket keeper in test cricket was broken by Rahul Dravid in the series against New Zealand in 2009.
A.           Ricky Ponting
B.           Mark Waugh
C.           Jacques Kallis
D.          Sanath Jayasurya
Ans.     (b)

14.       Who won the Women’s World Cup Cricket held in Australia in 2009?
A.        South Africa
B.        England
C.        India
D.       New Zealand
Ans.     (b)

15.       Which one of the following States has started Hooner, a programme for Muslim girls?
A.           Kashmir
B.           Bihar
C.           Andhra Pradesh
D.          Orissa
Ans.     (b)

16.       In which country Asean Summit was postponed in April 2009 due to Anti Government Protests?
A.           Singapore
B.           Philippines
C.           Burma Myanmar
D.          Thailand
Ans.     (d)

17.       Which of the following fluids would cool a ½ inch thick piece of steel the fastest?
A.           Motor oil
B.           25% salt water solution
C.           5% salt water solution
D.          Pure water
Ans.     (a)

18.       A spring scale reads 20N (Newton) as it pulls a 5.0 kg mass across a table. What is the magnitude of the force exerted by the mass on the spring scale?
A.        49N
B.        20N
C.        5.0 N
D.       4.0 N
Ans.     (d)

19.       Light year is a unit of
A.           Time
B.           Intensity of light
C.           Distance
D.          None of these
Ans.     (c)

20.       A burn caused by steam is more painful than a burn caused by boiling water because
A.           Steam penetrates inside the body
B.           Water is heavier than steam
C.           Steam has more attacking power
D.          Steam contains latent heat
Ans.     (d)

21.       The planet closest to the Sun is
A.           12.33
B.           11.67
C.           79.5
D.          89
Ans.     (a)

22.       What comes in place of the question mark ? 185x12-30+66-12=?
A.           12.33
B.           11.67
C.           79.5
D.          89
Ans.     (c)

23.       Which of the following is not a mammal?
A.        Fish
B.        Bat
C.        Whale
D.       None of these
Ans.     (a)

24.       Who wrote Jaina Kalpasutra?
A.           Bhadrabahu
B.           Sthalabahu
C.           Mahavira
D.          Parsvanath
Ans.     (a)

25.       Fa-hien visited India during the period of
A.           Chandragupta Maurya
B.           Chandragupta-I
C.           Samudragupta
D.          Chandragupta-II
Ans.     (d)

26.       The Paramara dynasty was founded by
A.           Upendra
B.           Bhoja
C.           Singhuraja
D.          Vakpati Munja
Ans.     (a)

27.       The Kitab-ul-Hind was written by
A.           Al-Masudi
B.           Abu Raihan Alberuni
C.           Ibn Batuta
D.          Megasthenese
Ans.     (b)

28.       Who wrote Padmovat?
A.           Chandbardai
B.           Narpati Nalha
C.           Gesudraj
D.          Jayasi
Ans.     (d)

29.       In British period the peasantry was ground down by the
A.           Zamindar
B.           Government
C.           Moneylender
D.          Merchant/ middleman
Ans.     (a)

30.       Who was the President of Calcutta session of Congress in 1886?
A.           W.C. Bonnerjee
B.           Dadabhai Naoroji
C.           Badrudin Tyabji
D.          Naoroji Furdoonji
Ans.     (b)

31.       Who has been regarded as the heroine of Quit India Movement?
A.           Kamla Devi Chattopadhyay
B.           Sucheta Kriplani
C.           Aruna Asaf Ali
D.          Sarojini Naidu
Ans.     (c)

32.       Which of the following is not an island?
A.        Rameshwaram
B.        Shriharikota
C.        New Moore
D.       Uran
Ans.     (d)

33.       What is the name of the reservoir made by Tehri dam project?
A.        Govind Sagar
B.        Umed Sagar
C.        Swamin Ramthirth Sagar
D.       Govind Ballabh Sagar
Ans.     (d)

34.       The heighest waterfall in India is
A.        Kalindi waterfall
B.        Jog waterfall
C.        Milky waterfall
D.       Shimsha waterfall
Ans.     (b)

35.       After many years, Javan Rhinos were found in March 2009 in which one of the following countries?
A.           China
B.           Malaysia
C.           Indonesia
D.          Thailand
Ans.     (c)

36.       Spark is the model of a car of which car manufacturing company?
A.           Ford
B.           Chevrolet
C.           Toyota
D.          Honda
Ans.     (b)

37.       What was the name of the reality show in which jade Goody, who died recently of cancer, had a rift with Indian actress Shilpa Shetty?
A.           Big Boss
B.           Big Brother
C.           American Idol
D.          Indian Idol
Ans.     (b)

38.       In which among the following events did Abhinav Bindra win the first ever individual Gold medal by an Indian at Beijing Olympics?
A.           50 metre Rifle
B.           50 metre Pistol
C.           10 metre Air Rifle
D.          25 metre Pistol
Ans.     (c)

39.       Which company purchased Satyam Computer Services in April 2009 by quoting the highest bid?
A.           L&T
B.           W.L. Ross
C.           Infosys
D.          Tech Mahindra
Ans.     (d)

40.       A quick and simple method commonly used to inspect whether a metal is Stainless steel is to
A.        Measure its specific gravity
B.        Pass a current throught it and measure its resistance
C.        Test if it will react with sulfuric acid
D.       Test if a magnet will be attracted to it.
Ans.     (d)

41.       A light bulb breaks when it hits the floor but does not break when it hits a rug, because
A.           Change in momentum of the bulb is greater for the rug
B.           Change in momentum of the bulb is greater for the floor.
C.           Light bulb weighs more when it hits the floor
D.          The time the bulb takes to stop moving is less for the floor
Ans.     (b)

42.       A hunter aims his gun at a monkey sitting at a distant tree. At the moment the bullet leaves the gun, the monkey drops vertically down. The Bullet will
A.        Hit the monkey
B.        Not hit the monkey
C.        Pass above the monkey’s head
D.       None of these
Ans.     (a)

43.       At higher altitueds water boils at temperature lower than 100C because
A.           Boiling point of water becomes lower at lower atmospheric pressure.
B.           Gravitational pull is lower at higher altitudes.
C.           Wind on higher altitudes are stormy
D.          None of these
Ans.     (a)

44.       A diode is a device which forces the electric current
A.           To flow in one direction only
B.           To flow in both directions
C.           Not to flow at all
D.          None of these
Ans.     (a)

45.       The most abundant elements in the crust of the earth is
A.           Oxygen
B.           Nitrogen
C.           Manganese
D.          Silicon
Ans.     (a)

46.       The technique used to detect the paternal character of an offspring is
A.           Protein synthesis
B.           Chromosome counting
C.           Quantitative synthesis of DNA
D.          DNA finger printing
Ans.     (c)

47.       The second Buddhist Council was summoned by
A.           BImbisara
B.           Kalasoka
C.           Ananda
D.          Asoka
Ans.     (b)

48.       What was the name of South Indian moneylenders?
A.           Seths
B.           Chettis
C.           Panis
D.          Nayars
Ans.     (b)

49.       Chola age was most famous for
A.           Village assemblies
B.           War with the Rashtrakutas
C.           Trade with Ceylon
D.          Advancement of Tamil culture
Ans.     (a)

50.       Urdu as a new languages was evolved for
A.           Official use
B.           Mutual intercourse
C.           Religious purposes
D.          Muslims only
Ans.     (b)

51.       Sheikh Nizam ud din Aulia was a
A.           Courtier
B.           Sufisaint
C.           Religious preacher
D.          Poet
Ans.     (b)

52.       Faujdar was in charge of a
A.        Pargana
B.        Province
C.        Sarkar
D.       Village
Ans.     (a)

53.       The Young Bengal Movement was inspired by
A.        Raja Rammohan Roy
B.        Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C.        David hare
D.       Henry Vivian Derozia
Ans.     (d)

54.       Strafford Cripps was a member of the
A.           Conservative party
B.           Labour party
C.           Liberal party
D.          Official hierarchy
Ans.     (b)

55.       The All India Kisan Sabha was formed in
A.           1920
B.           1932
C.           1936
D.          1940
Ans.     (c)

56.       Which of the following State has the first place in the production of tin?
A.           Orissa
B.           Jharkhand
C.           Rajasthan
D.          Madhya Pradesh
Ans.     (d)

57.       Lowest Scheduled Tribes Population is found in
A.           Mizoram
B.           Nagaland
C.           Goa
D.          Karnataka
Ans.     (a)

58.       First nuclear energy plant in India was established in
A.        Nalore
B.        Kalpakam
C.        Bangalore
D.       Hyderabad
Ans.     (b)

59.       INS VIRAAT, the only aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy in the Indian ocean was originally commissioned into the Royal British navy in 1959 as
A.        HMS Hermes
B.        HMS Argus
C.        HMS Furious
D.       HMS Ark Royal
Ans.     (a)

60.       Who has been appointed as the Director of the all India Institute of Medical Sciences for a term of five years after the retirement of Prof. Venugopal?
A.        Dr. R.C. Deka
B.        Dr. C. Ramdoss
C.        Dr. T.D. Dogra
D.       Dr. P.D. Dave
Ans.     (a)

61.       Who won the Women’s Singles title in Tennis at the Australian Open in 2009?
A.     Dinara Safina
B.     Serena Williams
C.     Ana lvanovic
D.    Sania Mirza
Ans.     (b)

62.       Who among the following was the author of the novel ‘The White Tiger’ published in 2008?
A.           Jhumpa Lahiri
B.           Arvind Adiga
C.           Arundhati Roy
D.          Salman Rushdie
Ans.     (b)

63.       Who was the Chirman of Sixth Central Pay Commission?
A.           R. Pandian
B.           Ravindra Dholakia
C.           B.N. Sri Krishna
D.          J.S. Mathur
Ans.     (c)

64.       Which of the following is measured in hertz?
A.           Speed
B.           Amplitude
C.           Wavelength
D.          Frequency
Ans.     (d)

65.       Which of the following is a source of emission in  microwave oven?
A.        A cyclotron
B.        A magnetron
C.        A laser lamp
D.       A cathode ray tube
Ans.     (b)

66.       An athlete can take a longer jump if he comes running from a distance as compared to that when he jumps suddenly. This is because of
A.           Inertia of rest
B.           Inertia of motion
C.           Inertia of direction
D.          Inertia of position
Ans.     (b)

67.       If water completely filling a bottle be frozen, the bottle cracks because
A.     Water expands on freezing
B.     Bottle contracts when water freezes
C.     External temperature of the bottle is more than the internal temperature
D.    Water contracts on freezing
Ans.     (a)

68.       If ten bulbs of 100 watt each kept switched on for one hour each day, the energy consumed per day will be
A.        1 Unit
B.        100 KWH
C.        10 Units
D.       10 KWH
Ans.     (a)

69.       In all organic compounds an essential fundamental element is
A.        Nitrogen
B.        Oxygen
C.        Carbon
D.       Sulfur
Ans.     (c)

70.       Pinki, Rinku and Tinku divide an amount of Rs. 4200 among themselves in the ratio 7:8:6 respectively. If an amount of Rs. 200 be added to each of their shares, what will be the new respective ration of their shares?
A.        8:9:7
B.        7:8:6
C.        7:9:5
D.       8:9:6
Ans.     (a)

71.       Number of chambers in the heart of a mammal are
A.        2
B.        3
C.        4
D.       5
Ans.     (c)

72.       Which one of the following Vedas dealt with rituals?
A.        Rigveda
B.        Samaveda
C.        Yajurveda
D.       Atharveda
Ans.     (c)

73.       The largest stupa at Sanchi is assignable to the period of the
A.           mauryas
B.           kushatias
C.           Satavahanas
D.          Guptas
Ans.     (a)

74.       Who were the first rulers to issue gold coins in India?
A.        Mauryas
B.        Indo Greeks
C.        Guptas
D.       Kushanas
Ans.     (d)

75.       The Padmini Episode is connected with which Sultan?
A.           Ala Ud Din Khaliji
B.           Muhammad Bin Tughluq
C.           Firozshah Tughluq
D.          Sikandar Lodhi
Ans.     (a)

76.       The Padmini Episode is connected with which Sultan?
A.           58 B.C.
B.           78 B.C.
C.           58 A.D.
D.          78 A.D.
Ans.     (d)

77.       Sir Thomas Roe came to India during the reign of
A.           Akbar
B.           Jahangir
C.           Shahjahan
D.          Aurangzeb
Ans.     (b)

78.       Din I llahi promulgated by Akbar in 1582 was
A.        Islamic doctrine
B.        Code of Conduct
C.        Hindu law influenced by islam
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (b)

79.       Which class of Indians was impacted by Western culture?
A.        Hindu aristocracy
B.        Muslim aristocracy
C.        Educated Hindu middle class
D.       Educated Muslim middle class
Ans.     (c)

80.       Who founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 ?
A.        Dadabhai Naoroj
B.        Madan Mohan Malviya
C.        Gopal Krishan Gokhale
D.       Motilal Nehru
Ans.     (c)

81.       Who strated Gurukul Kangri Vishwavidyalya/
A.           Swami Dayanand
B.           Lala Lajpat Rai
C.           Mahatma Hansraj
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (d)

82.       The road from Leh to Manali is situated at the height of
A.           4500m
B.           3500m
C.           4000m
D.          5000m
Ans.     (b)

83.       Where in India does pearl fishing take place?
A.        Tutikorin
B.        kandla
C.        Cochin
D.       Puri
Ans.     (c)

84.       Which one of the following Tidal Power Project?
A.           Bhadrawati
B.           Koyna
C.           Bhavnagar
D.          Rawat Bhata
Ans.     (c)

85.       Which of the following is the leading State of India in the production of Lac ?
A.        Assam
B.        Madhya Pradesh
C.        Bihar
D.       Orissa
Ans.     (a)

86.       According to 2001 Census, literacy rate in Kerala is
A.           99.81%
B.           95.81%
C.           90.92%
D.          98.81%
Ans.     (c)

87.       Malabar coast is situated between
A.        Goa and Kanyakumari
B.        Gujarat and Goa
C.        Ganga delta and Kanyakumari
D.       Nellore and Kanyakumari

88.       The Summit of the leaders of the World’s largest economies known as G-20 held in 2009 in
A.           Paris
B.           Washington
C.           Moscow
D.          London
Ans.     (d)

89.       What is the name  of the telescope which was launched into space on Delta II rocket by the US space agency NASA in 2009?
A.           Hubble
B.           Spitzer
C.           James Webb
D.          Kepler
Ans.     (d)

90.       Who won the Oscar for the best Sound Mixing in the film Slumdog Millionaire?
A.              A.R. Rehman
B.              Gulzar
C.              Resul Pekutty
D.             Anil Kapoor
Ans.     (c)

91.       108th Constitution Amendment Bill is also known as
A.              Tada Bill
B.              Women’s (Reservation of Seats) Bill
C.              Cooperative Societies Bill
D.             Lokpal Bill
Ans.     (b)

92.       Heating fuels in the absence of air is called Destructive Distillation because it breaks them into components. What we get when we do the same to wood/
A.           Charcoal
B.           Acetic acid
C.           Tar
D.          All of them
Ans.     (a)

93.       The 34th Summit of  G-8 was held in
A.        Japan
B.        Italy
C.        France
D.       Germany
Ans.     (a)

94.       If the sun of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, the object will
A.        Slow down and stop
B.        Change the direction of its motion
C.        Accelerate uniformly
D.       Continue moving with constant velocity
Ans.     (d)

95.       Bodies falling freely from a High tower have
A.        Equal velocity
B.        Equal acceleration
C.        Equal momentum
D.       Equal force
Ans.     (c)

96.       Mirges are seen in deserts on a hot afternoon because of
A.        Refraction
B.        Total internal reflection
C.        Dispersion
D.       Diffraction
Ans.     (b)

97.       Which of the following gas is responsible for acid rain?
A.        CFC
B.        Methane
C.        Ozone
D.       SO2
Ans.     (d)

98.       Main constituent of polluting gases coming S out of the exhaust pipes of motor vehicles is
A.        Carbon dioxide
B.        Carbon monoxide
C.        Marsh gas
D.       Nitrogen oxide
Ans.     (b)

99.       Mohan’s average score after 4 tests is 89, what score in the 5th test would bring his average to exactly 90?
A.        94
B.        93
C.        92
D.       91
Ans.     (a)

100.    In year 2000, population of town A was 9400 and that of town B was 7600. Since then each year, the population of town A has decreased by 100 and that of town B has increased by 100. In which year the populations of both the towns become equal?
A.           2118
B.           2117
C.           2010
D.          2009
Ans.     (d)
Part-II
LAW


1.         The writ of Habeas corpus means
A.           To produce the Body of a person illegally detained before a Court
B.           Respect the Human Rights of a person
C.           Stop the violation of a right of a man
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (A)

2.         The writ of Certiorari can be issued against
A.        A person exercising purely administrative powers
B.        Against a Minister
C.        Against arty Quasi Judicial or Judicial authority
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (aC)

3          Act of State can be questioned and challanged in
A.           Privy Council
B.           Queens Court
C.           High Court
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (D)

4.         During the operation of Martial Law
A.        The citizens important rights are suspended
B.        Parliament is dissolved
C.        Civilian Govt. is suspended
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (c)

5.         Out of the following which is not a Void Marriage?
A.           That at the time of the Marriage either party has a spouse
B.           The parties are sapindas to each other
C.           The parties are within prohibited degree of relationship
D.          That either party is of bad character.
Ans.     (d)

6.         A Hindu female can adopt a male child but, she must be senior to the child by at least
            (A)      12 years          (B)      14 years
            (C)      18 years          (D)      21 years
Ans.     (d)

7.         Hindu Law is not applicable In which of following cases?
A.           Any person who is a Hindu, Jain, or Bhuddhist by religion
B.           Any person who is born of Hindu parents
C.           Any person who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew
D.          Members of the scheduled tribes coming within clause (25) of Article 366 of the Constitution of India
Ans.     (d)

8.         Marriage with Eunuch is regarded as
            (A)      Illegal             (B)      Legal
            (C)      Void    (D) Voidable
Ans.     (c)

9.         What type of Muslim marriage is which. performed temporarily for enjoyment?
            (A)      Batil    (B)      Sahih
            (C)      Muta   (D)      Fasid
Ans.     (c)

10.       The Statutory Instruments Act 1946enm
A.           Judicial control of delegated legislation
B.           Growth of delegated legislation
C.           Parliamentary control of delegated legislation
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

11.       Two important principles of Natural Justice in the British administrative law are
A.           Doctrine of Bias and Doctrine of Hearing
B.           Doctrine of Bias and Right of cross examination
C.           Personal Bias and cross examination
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

12.       Which out of the following is not a ground, which allows a guardian to give a child in adoption?
A.           If both the parents are dead
B.           If parties have finally renounced the world
C.           If parents have been declared judicially to be of unsound mind
D.          If parents are illiterate
Ans.     (d)

13.       Which out of the following does not fall within the meaning of the term Avyavaharika debt?
A.           An Immoral debt
B.           An illegal debt
C.           A debt resulting from tortuous act
D.          Suretyship debt
Ans.     (d)

14.       The term Ombudsman in English Administrative Law means
A.           A Parliamentary Commissioner
B.           Vigilance Commissioner of England
C.           Speaker of House of Commons
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

15.       The Crown Proceeding Act was enacted in
A.           1935
B.           1942
C.           1945
D.          1947
Ans.     (d)

16.       Marriage in Muslim Law
A.           A Sacrament
B.           A Civil Contract
C.           A Sacrament and a Civil Contract both
D.          A Social Status
Ans.     (c)

17.       What is the age of Puberty for a Muslim marriage?
A.           9 years
B.           12 years
C.           15 years
D.          18 years
Ans.     (c)

18.       Marriage by a Muslim with his real sister is
A.        Void
B.        Voidable
C.        Valid
D.       Invalid
Ans.     (a)

19.       In Muslim law
A.        Payment of Meher is necessary
B.        Payment of Meher is not necessary
C.        Meher is to be paid on demand before marriage
D.       Meher is determined after marriage.
Ans.     (a)

20.       Which out of the following is not modern source of Hindu Law?
A.        Equity, Justice and Good Conscience
B.        Precedent
C.        Legislation
D.       Custom
Ans.     (d)

21.       The Nature of Marriage of a Impotent Person is:
A.        Void
B.        Voidable
C.        Illegal
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (b)

22.       The highest court in British Constitution is called
A.        Privy Council
B.        High Court
C.        Supreme Court
D.       House of Lords
Ans.     (b)

23.       The Fundamental Rights in England are given to citizens by
A.        The written constitution
B.        By conventions of the Constitution
C.        By judicial decisions
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (b)

24.       Which out of the following is not regarded as 'Stridhan' by Shastric Hindu Law?
A.           Gifts from relatives
B.           Property purchased with Stridhan
C.           Property obtained in lieu of maintenance
D.          Gifts of immovable property by husband
Ans.     (d)

25.       The legal status of a mahant of 'Math' is
A.        A Trustee
B.        Corporation sole
C.        Owner of 'Maths' property
D.       Manager of 'Math'
Ans.     (a)

26.       In which section of Indian Evidence Act, the Plea of Alibi is laid down?
            (A)      Section 7        (B)      Section 26
            (C)      Section 49      (D)      Section 11
Ans.     (d)

27.       Under which section of Evidence Act, confession before Police is not admissible
            (A)      Section 25      (B)      Section 32
            (C)      Section 32      (D)      Section 41
Ans.     (a)

28.       In which section, doctrine of dying declaration is found?
            (A)      Section 16      (B)      Section 27
            (C)      Section 32      (D)      Section 41
Ans.     (c)

29.       A sues B for Rs. 1000 and shows entries in his account book showing B to be indebted to him to this amount. This entry is
A.        Not relevant
B.        Relevant
C.        Does not have evidentiary value
D.       Inadmissible
Ans.     (b)

30.       Out of the following which is not a secondary evidence?
A.           Copies made from the original by mechanical process.
B.           Copies made from or compared with the original
C.           Oral accounts of the contents of a document given be a person who has himself seen it
D.          Oral account of  a Photograph
Ans.     (d)

31.       Presumption as to dowry death is laid down in
A.           Section 113-B
B.           Section 114
C.           Section 117
D.          Section 118
Ans.     (a)

32.       Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code, a High Court can transfer a case?
A.           Section 25 C.P.C
B.           Section 20 C.P.C.
C.           Section 12 C.P.C.
D.          Section 15 C.P.C.
Ans.     (No option are true)

33.       Under which section of C.P.C. a notice is required to be given at least two months before filing a suit against a Central or State Government?
            (A)      Section 50 C.P.C.      (B)      Section 51 C.P.C.
            (C)      Section 80 C.P.C.      (D)      Section 81 C.P.C.
Ans.     (c)

34.       Facts forming part of the same Transaction are known as
A.           Plea of Alibi
B.           Dying Declaration
C.           Admission
D.          Res Gestae
Ans.     (d)

35.       The term Judicial confession means
A.        It is made before a Police Officer
B.        It is caused by inducement, threat or promise      .
C.        It is made before any court Officer
D.       It is made before a Magistrate
Ans.     (d)

36.       No person shall be twice punished for the same offence is incorporated in
(A)      Art. 19 I (F)    (B)      Art. 20(2)
(C)      Art. 22                        (D)      Art. 368
Ans.     (b)

37.       Which out of the following is not a right covered by Art. 21 of the Constitution?
A.        Right to Health
B.        Right to Education
C.        Right to safe drinking water
D.       Right to Strike
Ans.     (d)

38.       A person who is appointed to protect the disputed property is known as
A.        A judgement debtor
B.        Commissioner
C.        Receiver
D.       A pauper
Ans.     (c)

39.       The Arbitration and Conciliation Act was enacted in
            (A)      1908   (B)      1940
            (C)      1996   (D)      2002
Ans.     (c)

40.       Section 482 Cr.P.C. deals with
A.        Injunction
B.        Arrest of a proclaimed offender
C.        Appellate powers of High Court
D.       Inherent powers of a High Court
Ans.     (d)

41.       By which amendment, the words Secular and Socialist were included in the preamble?
A.           1st  Amendment
B.           6th  Amendment
C.           42nd  Amendment
D.          44th  Amendment
Ans.     (c)

42.       In which section of Indian Evidence Act opinion of third person is relevant?
            (A)      Section 14     (B)      Section 34
            (C)      Section 44      (D)      Section 45
Ans.     (d)

43.       In criminal proceedings, the fact that the person accused is of good character Is relevant according to
            (A)      Section 53     (B)      Section 54
            (C)      Section 55      (D)      Section 56
Ans.     (a)

44.       In civil proceedings, ordinarily a civil judge is required to deliver judgements within ninety days of the conclusion of hearing, this was proposed by
A.        Amendment Act of 1 976
B.        Amendment Act of 1 999
C.        Amendment Act of 2002
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (c)

45.       Under which article of the Constitution Parliament can create a new state?
A.        Art. 3
B.        Art. 4
C.        Art. 5
D.       Art. 368
Ans.     (a)

46.       Which out of the following is not covered under State of Article 12 of the Constitution?
A.           Central Govt.
B.           State Govt.
C.           University of Patna
D.          A Deity  
Ans.     (d)

47.       Who out of the following cannot be appointed arbitrator?
A.              A person of sound mind
B.              A person who has attained the age of majority
C.              A person who has an interest in the subject matter of dispute
D.             A person of good character
Ans.     (c)

48.       Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Police Officer can release an accused on bail in non-bailable case?
            (A)      Section 336   (B)      Section 337
            (C)      Section.436   (D)      Section 437
Ans.     (d)

49.       From which date Civil Procedure Code 1908, became operative?
A.        1st January,1908
B.        1st  April, 1908
C.        31st  December, 1908
D.       1st  January,'1909
Ans.     (d)

50.       Under which section of Cr. P.C. a Magistrate can arrest a person?
            (A)      Section  38     (B)      Section 40
            (c)       Section 41      (D)      Section 44
Ans.     (d)

51.       Who will be Guardian of a minor under Muslim Law?
A.           Mother
B.           Father
C.           Executor appointed will on death of father
D.          Grand father
Ans.     (b)

52.       The Guardian who does not possess the right of transfer of property of a minor
A.           Natural Guardian
B.           De-Facto Guardian
C.           Legal Guardian
D.          Guardian appointed by Court
Ans.     (b)

53.       The term actionable claim does not include anyone of the following:
A.           Claim for arrears of rent
B.           A share in partnership
C.           The right-to the proceed of business
D.          A debt secured by mortgage of immovable property
Ans.     (d)

54.       Which out of the following does not constitute exception to the rule against perpetuity?
A.           Where a property is transferred for the benefit of the public 
B.           A lease with a covenant for renewal
C.           It does not apply to vested interests
D.          A fund is bequeathed to next seven generations
Ans.     (d)

55.       Which out of the following is not a transfer according to T.P. Act?
A.           Sale
B.           Gift
C.           Exchange
D.          Abandonment of a claim to property
Ans.     (d)

56.       What is the meaning of the maxim equity acts in personam?
A.           Equity enforces its behest by acting on the conscience of the person who is charged therewith
B.           Equity looks on that as done which ought to have been done
C.           Where there is equal equity the Law still prevail           
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

57.       Who gave the following comment? "Trust is the very centre and kernel of Equity"
            (A)      Bacon             (B)      Story
            (C)      Snell   (D)      Hanbury
Ans.     (a)

58.       Under which section of the Trust Act, 1882 the definition of the breach of trust is provided?
            (A)      l(d)      (B)      -2
            (C)      3          (D)      5
Ans.     (c)

59.       As a general rule what is the liability of a trustee for brench of trust by co-trustee?
A.        Fully liable
B.        Partially liable
C.        No liability
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (c)

60.       Which out of the following is not a kind of mortgage?
A.        Mortgage by conditional sale
B.        Usufructuary mortgage
C.        English mortgage
D.       Subrogation
Ans.     (d)

61.       Which out of the following does not constitute agricultural lease?
A.           A lease for rearing tea plants
B.           A lease for cultivation of Indigo
C.           A lease for cultivation of potatoes
D.          A lease for gathering fruits from trees
Ans.     (d)
 
62.       When is Iddat observed for three months
A.           On the death of husband
B.           On the death of husband of pregnant woman
C.           On Divorce
D.          On Invalid marriage
Ans.     (c)

63.       Talaq which cannot be revoked after pronouncement, is called
A.        Talaq-ul Bain
B.        Talaq-I Tufweez
C.        Talaq-l-Iddat
D.       Talaq Hasan
Ans.     (Option not given)

64.       Who has no right of maintenance?
A.        Unmarried Daughter
B.        Poor Parents
C.        Physically disabled major son
D.       Widow Daughter
Ans.     (d)

65.       Which out of the following Is not immovable property according to T.P. Act, 18821
A.        Land
B.        Benefits to arise out of land
C.        Things attached to earth
D.       Standing timber
Ans.     (d)

66.       A gift of immovable property can be given
A.           By delivery of immovable property
B.           By written instrument
C.           By delivery and registration of document
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

67.       Out of the following, which is a actionable claim?
            (A)      Mortgage debt                      (B)      Mesne profit
            (C)      Decree                                    (D)      Provident fund
Ans.     (d)

68.       The Law regarding transfer by ostensible owner is laid down in
            (A)      Section 39      (B)      Section 41
            (C)      Section 45      (D)      Section 53
Ans.     (b)

69.       The literary meaning of Lis Pendens is
A.           A suit under consideration of any court of law
B.           A previous decision bars the subsequent filing of the suit
C.           Exception to Doctrine of Res-judicata
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

70.       The term ces-tui-que trust was used by
A.           Queen's Court
B.           High Court
C.           Court of Equity
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

71.       Who out of the following cannot create a
A.        A person of 21 years of age
B.        An advocate
C.        A minor
D.       A juristic person
Ans.     (c)

72.       Which section of T.P. Act bars fraud transfer?
(A)      Section 43      (B)      Section 53
(C)      Section 63      (D)      Section 71
Ans.     (b)

73.       "Equity had come not to destroy the Law fulfill it"-who said this?
            (A)      Maitland         (B)      Potter
            (C)      Salmond        (D)      Snell
Ans.     (a)

74.       The meaning of the maxim "Equality Is Equity is
A.           Equity delights in equity
B.           Delay defeats equity
C.           Equity looks to the intent rather to form
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

75.       The doctrine of part performance Is based.
A.           Section 53A
B.           Section 54
C.           Section 57(B)
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

76.       A buys from B an original paintings of Piccasso. B refuses to honour his promise. On what ground, A can specifically enforce the contract?
A.        Compensation is not an adequate remedy
B.        He loves Piccasso’s paintings
C.        He wants to make his collections of paintings rich
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (a)

77.       A enters into contract with B to marry her. Can this contract be specifically enforced?
A.           Yes
B.           No
C.           With the help of court, yes
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (b)

78.       The case related to minors agreement is void abinitio is
A.        Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
B.        Mohoribibi V. Dharmadas Ghose
C.        Nash V. Inman
D.       None of these
Ans.     (b)

79.       The consent obtained by threatening to commit suicide amounts to consent by
A.           Coercion
B.           Undue influence
C.           Fraud
D.          None of these
Ans.     (a)

80.       The law relating to the payment of damages is based on the leading English case of
A.           Hadley v. Baxandale
B.           Hobbs v. London Rly. Co.
C.           Hadley v. Sullivan
D.          None of these
Ans.     (a)

81.       In case of breach of contract which of the following remedy is available to the aggrieved party?
A.           Suit for recession
B.           Suit for damages
C.           Suit for specific performance
D.          All of these
Ans.     (a)

82.       The meaning of the maxim UBI JUS IBI Remediam is
A.           Where there is a right there is a remedy
B.           Rights and Duties are Co-relative
C.           Tort is actionable perse
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

83.       Which out of the following persons is an exception who cannot sue for tort?
A.        An alien enemy
B.        Husband and wife
C.        A child in mothers womb
D.       A Govt. servant
Ans.     (a)

84.       In the wrong of negligence there is breach of
A.        Legal duty of the defendant
B.        Legal right of the defendant
C.        of good faith
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (a)

85.       Objective theory of negligence was given by
A.        Salmond
B.        Austin
C.        Holland
D.       Pollock
Ans.     (d)

86.       The delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose is known as
(A)      Bailment                     (B)      Pledge
(C)      Hypothecation                       (D)      Mortgage
Ans.     (a)

87.       Tort is a special branch of Law which originated in
(A)      America         (B)      France
(C)      India                (D)      England
Ans.     (d)

88.       The remedy in case of tort is
A.           Deterrent punishment to wrong doer
B.           Reformation of wrong doer
C.           Compensation in money (Damages)
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

89.       Gloucestour Grammer School case is about
A.           Damnum Sine Injuria
B.           Injuria Sine Damnum
C.           Contributory negligence
D.          Strict liability
Ans.     (a)

90.       A void contract is one which Is
A.           Enforceable at the option of one party
B.           Enforceable at the option of both the parties
C.           Enforceable at the direction of court
D.          Not enforceable in the court of Law
Ans.     (d)

91.       A voidable contract is one which
A.           Can be enforced at the option of aggrieved party
B.           Can be enforced at the option of both the parties
C.           Cannot be enforced in a court of Law
D.          Courts prohibit
Ans.     (a)

92.       Where the consent of both the parties is given by mistake, the contract is
(A)      Void                (B)      Valid
(C)      Voidable         (D)      Illegal
Ans.     (a)

93.       A agrees to sell his car to B at a price which B may be able to pay, This agreement is
(A)      Void                (B)      Valid
(C)      Voidable         (D)      Contingent
Ans.     (b)

94.       Which out of the following cannot be used as defences in an action for tort?
A.        Acts of State
B.        Judicial acts
C.        Statutory authority
D.       A Tax payer
Ans.     (d)

95.       Vidyawati v. State of Rajasthan is a case Law relating to
A.        Tortuous liability of corporations
B.        Tortuous liability of a company
C.        Vicarious Liability of State
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (c)

96.       A person who supplies 'Necessaries' to a minor is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of the minor on the basis of a
A.           Valid contract
B.           Voidable contract
C.           Quasi contract
D.          Contingent contract
Ans.     (c)

97.       On the valid performance of the contractual obligations by the parties, the contract
A.           Is discharged
B.           Becomes enforceable
C.           Becomes void
D.          None of these
Ans.     (a)

98.       The case of Reyland v. Fletcher has laid down the principle of
A.        Defamation
B.        Conspiracy
C.        Strict liability of land owner
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (c)

99.       As a general rule, an agreement made without consideration is
(A)      Void    (B)      Voidable
(C)      Valid   (D)      Unlawful
Ans.     (a)

100.    A agrees to sell his scooter worth Rs. 10,000/- to S for Rs. 5000/- only and as consent was obtained by coercion. Here the agreement is
(A)      Void                (B)      Valid  
(C)      Voidable         (D)      Unlawful
Ans.     (c)

101.    A general procedure for alteration of articles of association which has the effect of converting a public company into a private company is by passing
A.           Special resolution and approval of CLB
B.           Special resolution and approval of Central Govt.
C.           Ordinary resolution and approval of CLB
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

102.    The power to order rectification of register of members vests in the
A.        Court
B.        Company Law Board
C.        Central Govt.
D.       Board of Directors
Ans.     (d)

103.    The case of Abranth v. North Eastern Rly.Co. is about
A.        Malicious prosecution
B.        Defamation
C.        Strict liability
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (a)

104.    Which out of the following does not constitute an exception to the rule in Ryland v. Fletcher?
A.           Act of God
B.           Malicious Act of Stranger
C.           Plantiffs own fault
D.          Poor condition of land
Ans.     (d)

105.    A orally abuses S, it is a case of
A.        Libel
B.        Slander
C.        Both (A) and (B)
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (b)

106.    The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with the
A.           Movable goods only
B.           Immovable goods only
C.           Both movable and immovable goods
D.          All goods except ornaments
Ans.     (a)

107.    Which of the following is not an essential teature of partnership?
A.           Result of an agreement
B.           Organised to carryon business
C.           Carried on by all or any of them acting for all
D.          Separate legal entity
Ans.     (d)

108.    A Dormant partner is one who is
A.           Entitled to share profits only
B.           Neither active nor known to outsiders
C.           Not interested in the business of the firm
D.          Not liable to outsider
Ans.     (b)

109.    A person who receives a negotiable instrument in good faith and for valuable consideration is known as
A.           Holder
B.           Holder for value
C.           Holder in due course
D.          Holder in rights
Ans.     (c)

110.    All Cheques are Bills of Exchange, but all Bills of Exchange are not Cheques
A.           True
B.           False
C.           Partly true and partly false
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

111.    The case of Ratlam Municipality v. Virdhichand is related to
A.           Conspiracy
B.           Malicious prosecution
C.           Tortuous liability of Municipal Corporation
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

112.    Kasturilal v. State of U.P. is related to
A.        Contractual liability of State
B.        Vicarious liability of State
C.        Fraud of State
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (b)

113.    A company in which 51% or more shares are held by the Govt. is called
A.        A Private Company
B.        A Public Company
C.        A Govt. Company
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (c)

114.    The capital with which the company is registered is called the
A.        Subscribed capital
B.        Authorised capital
C.        Working capital
D.       None of these
Ans.     (a)

115.    Which of the following is not competent to draw a valid negotiable instrument?
A.        Insolvent
B.        Company
C.        Agent
D.       Both B and C
Ans.     (a)

116.    Section 138 of the Negotiable instrument Act deals with
A.        Punishment for dishonor of Cheque
B.        Rights of holder
C.        Rights of holder in due course
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (a)

117.    Which             of the following is not an implied condition in a contract of sale?
A.        Condition as to title
B.        Condition as to description
C.        Condition as to free from encumbrance
D.       Condition as to sample
Ans.     (c)

118.    The unpaid seller can exercise his right of stoppage of goods in transit where the buyer
A.           Becomes insolvent
B.           Refuses to pay price
C.           Acts fraudulently
D.          All these
Ans.     (a)

119.    The registration of partnership firm with the Register of Companies is
A.           Compulsory
B.           Optional
C.           Required under section 54
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (b)

120.    Which of the following is not the right of a partner?
A.           Right to take part in business
B.           Right to have access to account books
C.           Right to share profits
D.          Right to receive remuneration
Ans.     (d)

121.    Which of the following is not the characteristic of a Public Company?
A.           It has a separate legal entity
B.           It has a perpetual succession
C.           It has a common seal and separate property
D.          Its shares are non transferable
Ans.     (d)

122.    The meaning of the term Caveat Emptor is
A.           Let the buyer beware
B.           Goods should be free from defects
C.           Ownership of goods passes after sale
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

123.    The unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien over the goods for
A.           Price of goods
B.           Storage charges
C.           Any Lawful charges
D.          All of these
Ans.     (a)


124.    The Negotiable Instruments Act makes specific mention of three instuments, namely Cheque, Bill of exchange and
A.           Promissory note
B.           Hundi
C.           Bank Draft
D.          All the above
Ans.     (a)

125.    On which of the following grounds a partner may apply to the court for dissolution of the firm?
A.           Insanity of a partner
B.           Misconduct of  a partner
C.           perpetual losses in business
D.          All of the above
Ans.     (d)

126.    As a guardian of the Govt. of India Act, 1935 a court was constituted which was called
A.           Privy Council
B.           Supreme Court
C.           High Court
D.          Federal Court
Ans.     (d)

127.    The Mountbaten plan led to the enactment of
A.           Govt. of India Act, 1919
B.           Govt. of India Act, 1935
C.           The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

128.    Delegatus non Potest Delagare means
A.        A delegate can further delegate its powers
B.        Delegated legislation is valid
C.        A delegate cannot further delegate his powers
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (c)

129.    The doctrine of separation of powers in the context of English constitution is not fully applicable because
A.        Executive is responsible to the Legislature
B.        Legislature is responsible to the Judiciary
C.        Executive and Legislature are Independent to each other
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (a)

130.    The case of Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh deals with which of the following rights?
A.        Rights to go Abroad
B.        Right to Education
C.        Right to Privacy
D.       Right of an environment free from pollution
Ans.     (b)

131.    Under which article of the Constitution a distinguished jurist can be appointed a Judge of Supreme Court?
A.           Art. 124 (2)
B.           Art. 127
C.           Art. 128
D.          Art. 130
Ans.     (a)

132.    The case of State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh is related with which of the following doctrines?
A.        Doctrine of Basic Structure
B.        Doctrine of Eclipse
C.        Doctrine of pith and substance
D.       Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
Ans.     (d)

133.    Entry 97 of Union list of the Constitution deals with
A.        Agriculture
B.        Education
C.        Police
D.       Reserved Power
Ans.     (d)

134.    Article 312 of the Constitution is related to
A.           Constitution of all India Services
B.           Powers of Chief Election Commissioner
C.           Breach of Parliamentary privileges
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (a)

135.    Under the Govt. of India’s Act 1935, how many Governors provinces and Chief Commissioners provinces constituted in British India?
A.           14 and 7
B.           11 and 7
C.           15 and 9
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (b)

136.    The Acts of 1911 and 1948 has made
A.           The House of Commons powerless
B.           The House of Lords powerless
C.           The House of Lords most powerful
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (b)

137.    The nature of power of Parliament to punish any person for breach of its privilege is
A.           Judicial
B.           Administrative
C.           Quasi Judicial
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

138.    Article 301 of the Constitution is related to
A.        Right to property
B.        Rights of civil servants
C.        Money bill
D.       Freedom of Inter State Trade
Ans.     (d)

139.    Under which article of the Constitution, a State can impose tax on Inter State trade with the prior approval of the President?
A.        Art. 302
B.        Art. 303 (1)
C.        Art. 303(II)
D.       Art. 304
Ans.     (d)

140.    Writ of Quo Warranto is related with
A.           IIIegal detention of a person
B.           Want of Jurisdiction of a court
C.           IIIegal holder of a Public Office
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

141.    Which out of the following does not constitute basic structure of the Constitution ?
A.           Right to Equality
B.           Secularism
C.           Judicial review
D.          Right to speedy trial
Ans.     (d)

142.    The doctrine of rule of law in England means
A.        Absence of Arbitrary powers
B.        Absence of discretionary powers
C.        Supremacy of droit administratiff
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (a)

143.    The doctrine of rule of law in British constitution was propounded by
A.           Winston Churchil
B.           Douglas Home
C.           Jenning
D.          Prof. Dicey
Ans.     (d)

144.    The provision relating to the Federal Structure can be amended by Parliament
A.           By simple majority
B.           By 2/3rd majority
C.           By absolute majority
D.          By 2/3rd majority of members present and voting and reatification by hald of the State.
Ans.     (d)

145.    Article 300 of the Constitution deals with
A.        Tortuous and contractual liability of State
B.        Right to Property
C.        Freedom of trade and commerce
D.       Parliamentary privileges
Ans.     (a)

146.    Article 329 of the Constitution deals with
A.           Amending power of Parliament
B.           Taxing power of Parliament
C.           Delimitation of Electoral constituencies
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

147.    The customes, usages and traditions in British constitution are known as
A.           Rule of law
B.           Supremacy of the Parliament
C.           Conventions of the Constitution
D.          None of the above
Ans.     (c)

148.    The two Houses of British Parliament are
A.        House of Commons and Senate
B.        Senate and House of Lords
C.        House of Commons and Diet
D.       House of Commons and House of Lords
Ans.     (d)

149.    Automobiles Ltd. v. State of Rajasthan is a case related to
A.        Federalism
B.        Amendability of the Constitution
C.        Judicial review
D.       Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse
Ans.     (d)

150.    The Concurrent list of the Constitution has
A.        52 Entries
B.        99 Entries
C.        107 Entries
D.       None of the above
Ans.     (d)

Courtesy:- Legal Point Foundation

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